|
06/09/2003
Bank: (Airline Transport Pilot)
Airman Knowledge Test Question Bank
| The FAA computer-assisted testing system is supported by a series of
supplement publications. These publications, available through several
aviation publishers, include the graphics, legends, and maps that are needed
to successfully respond to certain test items. Please download the file
Supplements.pdf at the Internet address of
http://afs600.faa.gov/ for a complete list of the associated supplement
books. |
| 1. |
J34 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 1, legend 15 and appendix 2, figure 215.) Windsor Locks/Bradley
Intl, is an FAR Part 139 airport. What minimum number of aircraft rescue and
fire-fighting vehicles, and what type and amount of fire-fighting agents are
the airport required to have? |
| A) Three
vehicles and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC), or Halon 1211 or 450 pounds DC
and 4,000 gallons of water. |
| B) Three
vehicles and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC), or Halon 1211 or 450 pounds DC
plus 3,000 gallons of water. |
| C) Two
vehicles and 600 pounds dry chemical (DC), or Halon 1211 or 500 pounds of DC
plus 4,000 gallons of water. |
| 2. |
A32 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| How many
hours of satisfactory flight navigation experience must an applicant have
logged to apply for a Flight Navigator Certificate if the applicant has no
pilot time? |
| A) 300
hours. |
| B) 200
hours. |
| C) 100
hours. |
| 3. |
C20 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| An
airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate
holder for the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular
airport is not available is a/an: |
| A)
alternate airport. |
| B)
provisional airport. |
| C)
destination airport. |
| 4. |
A02 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| The
maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop
the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is |
| A) VEF. |
| B) V1. |
| C) V2. |
| 5. |
B07 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| The
maximum indicated airspeed that an aircraft may be flown in Class B
airspace, after departing the primary airport, while at 1,700 feet AGL and
3.5 nautical miles from the airport is |
| A) 250
knots. |
| B) 200
knots. |
| C) 230
knots. |
| 6. |
B09 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What is
the required flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are operating
in Class E airspace at 9,500 feet with a VFR-on-Top clearance during
daylight hours? |
| A) 3
statute miles, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal. |
| B) 5
statute miles, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal. |
| C) 3
statute miles, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal. |
| 7. |
C10 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| When a
passenger notifies the certificate holder prior to checking baggage that an
unloaded weapon is in the baggage, what action is required by regulation
regarding this baggage? |
| A) The
baggage must remain locked and carried in an area that is inaccessible to
the passenger, and only the passenger retains the key. |
| B) The
baggage must remain locked and stored where it would be inaccessible, and
custody of the key shall remain with a designated crewmember. |
| C) The
baggage may be carried in the flightcrew compartment, provided the baggage
remains locked, and the key is given to the pilot in command. |
| 8. |
F02 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 1, Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 172.) If not excepted, what label,
if any, must be placed on a package containing acetone? |
| A)
POISON. |
| B)
FLAMMABLE LIQUID. |
| C) No
label is required. |
| 9. |
G03 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 1, Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 175.) What is the minimum distance
that a package of radioactive materials bearing the label 'RADIOACTIVE
YELLOW II' and having a transport index of 15, may be placed from a space
continuously occupied by people? |
| A) 3
feet. |
| B) 5
feet. |
| C) 4
feet. |
| 10. |
G11 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What
period of time must a person be hospitalized before an injury may be defined
by the NTSB as a 'serious injury'? |
| A) 48
hours; commencing within 7 days after date of the injury. |
| B) 72
hours; commencing within 10 days after date of injury. |
| C) 10
days, with no other extenuating circumstances. |
| 11. |
E11 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Who is
responsible for submitting a Mechanical Reliability Report? |
| A) Each
certificate holder. |
| B) Chief
inspector at the facility where the condition is found. |
| C)
Director of maintenance at the facility that discovers the reportable
condition. |
| 12. |
B11 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What
facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a
Category I ILS approach? |
| A)
Compass locator, PAR, and ASR. |
| B) ASR
and PAR. |
| C) The
middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums. |
| 13. |
E09 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figure 2.) May a small transport category,
turbine-engine-powered airplane that has a computed landing distance of
5,500 feet use one or both of the runways depicted in the illustration at
the destination airport? |
| A) Rwy 1
or Rwy 19 may be used whether conditions are wet or dry. |
| B)
Neither Rwy 1 nor Rwy 19 may be used if dry conditions exist. |
| C) Only
Rwy 19 may be used provided dry conditions exist. |
| 14. |
E09 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figure 1.) What is the maximum landing distance that may be
used by a turbopropeller-powered, small transport category airplane to land
on Rwy 24 (dry) at the alternate airport? |
| A) 6,405
feet. |
| B) 5,490
feet. |
| C) 6,210
feet. |
| 15. |
E05 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| No
person may serve, as second in command of an aircraft (under part 135),
unless they hold a commercial pilot certificate with the appropriate
category, class rating and an instrument rating. For flight under IFR, that
person must have accomplished within the last 6 months, the recent
instrument requirements of |
| A)
holding procedures, using the navigation systems for intercepting and
tracking courses, and 6 instrument approaches. |
| B) using
the navigation systems for interception and tracking of courses, 6
instrument low approaches and holding. |
| C) using
the navigation systems to intercept and track 3 inbound/3outbound courses, 6
holding patterns and 6 instrument approaches.. |
| 16. |
E09 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figure 1.) What is the maximum landing distance that may be
used by a turbine-engine-powered, small transport category airplane to land
on Rwy 6 (wet) at the destination airport? |
| A) 5,460
feet. |
| B) 6,088
feet. |
| C) 5,880
feet. |
| 17. |
E04 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| If the
weather forecasts do not require the listing of an alternate airport on an
IFR flight, the airplane must carry sufficient fuel to fly to the
destination airport and |
| A) fly
for 45 minutes thereafter at normal cruise climb speed. |
| B) make
one missed approach and thereafter have a 45-minute reserve at normal
cruising speed. |
| C) fly
thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed. |
| 18. |
E10 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| If a
certificate holder makes arrangements for another person to perform aircraft
maintenance, that maintenance shall be performed in accordance with the |
| A)
provisions of a contract prepared by a certificate holder and approved by
the supervising FAA district office. |
| B)
certificate holder's manual and FAR Parts 43, 91, and 135. |
| C)
provisions and standards as outlined in the certificate holder's manual. |
| 19. |
E07 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| To serve
as pilot in command in an IFR operation, a person must have passed a line
check |
| A)
within the past 12 months, which include a portion of a civil airway and one
instrument approach at one representative airport, in one of the types of
aircraft which that pilot is to fly. |
| B) since
the beginning of the 12th month before that service, which included at least
one flight over a civil airway, or approved off-airway route, or any portion
of either, in one type of aircraft which that pilot is to fly. |
| C)
consisting of a flight over the route to be flown, with at least three
instrument approaches at representative airports, within the past 12
calendar months, in one type of aircraft which that pilot is to fly. |
| 20. |
E02 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| With
regard to flight crewmember duties, which operations are considered to be in
the 'critical phase of flight'? |
| A)
Descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective of altitudes
MSL. |
| B) All
ground operations involving taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations
conducted below 10,000 feet, excluding cruise flight. |
| C) All
ground operations involving taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations
conducted below 10,000 feet MSL, including cruise flight. |
| 21. |
E07 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| A pilot
in command who is authorized to use an autopilot system, in place of a
second in command, may take the autopilot check |
| A)
concurrently with the instrument proficiency check, but at 12 month
intervals. |
| B)
concurrently with the competency check, providing the check is taken at 12
month intervals. |
| C) in
any aircraft appropriately equipped, providing the check is taken at 6 month
intervals. |
| 22. |
E05 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Pilot
flight time limitations under FAR Part 135 are based |
| A)
solely on flight time accumulated in air taxi operations. |
| B) on
the flight time accumulated in any commercial flying. |
| C)
solely on flight time accumulated during commercial flying, in the last 30
day and/or 12 month period. |
| 23. |
E03 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| An
airplane, operated by a commuter air carrier, flying in extended overwater
operations must carry enough approved liferafts of a rated capacity and
buoyancy to accommodate the occupants of the aircraft. Each liferaft must be
equipped with |
| A) one
approved pyrotechnic signaling device. |
| B) one
fishing kit for each person, the raft is rated to carry. |
| C)
colored smoke flares and a signal mirror. |
| 24. |
E04 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| No
person may takeoff an aircraft under IFR from an airport that has takeoff
weather minimums but that is below landing minimums unless there is an
alternate airport within |
| A) 1
hour at normal cruise speed in still air of the departure airport. |
| B) 1
hour at normal indicated airspeed of the departure airport. |
| C) 1
hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine operating. |
| 25. |
E04 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 173, and 173A.) The PIC of PTZ 70 has less than 100
hours of PIC time in the BE 1900. Due to BUF weather being 100 feet, 1/4
mile in blowing snow, which is below landing minimums, the PIC requested and
received clearance to SYR, the filed alternate. |
| Under
Part 135 what are the PIC's minimums at SYR for the ILS RWY 10? |
| A)
800/2. |
| B)
671/40. |
| C)
771/64. |
| 26. |
E03 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Federal
Aviation Regulations require that interior emergency lights, on aircraft
having a passenger seating configuration of 20 to |
| A) be
armed or turned on during taxiing and all flight operations. |
| B)
operate automatically when subjected to a negative G load. |
| C) be
operable manually from the flightcrew station and a point in the passenger
compartment. |
| 27. |
E08 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| A
crewmember who has served as second in command on a particular aircraft type
(e.g., BE-1900), may serve as pilot in command upon completing which
training program? |
| A)
transition training. |
| B)
initial training. |
| C)
upgrade training. |
| 28. |
E08 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| A person
whose duties include the handling or carriage of dangerous articles and/or
magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed, an approved
training program established by the certificate holder, within the previous |
| A) 24
calendar months. |
| B) 6
calendar months. |
| C) 12
calendar months. |
| 29. |
D09 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| For
which of these aircraft is the 'clearway' for a particular runway considered
in computing takeoff weight limitations? |
| A) U.S.
certified air carrier airplanes certificated after August 29, 1959. |
| B)
Turbine-engine-powered transport airplanes certificated after September 30,
1958. |
| C) Those
passenger-carrying transport aircraft certificated between August 26, 1957
and August 30, 1959. |
| 30. |
E04 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figure 182A.) The PIC on EAB 90 has not flown 100 hours as
PIC in the BE 1900 (CAT B aircraft). What are the minimums for the PIC when
flying the ILS RWY 09R, at PHL? |
| A)
321/36. |
| B)
221/18. |
| C)
321/42. |
| 31. |
E08 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| The
training required for flight crewmembers who have not qualified and served
in the same capacity on an aircraft is |
| A)
initial training. |
| B)
transition training. |
| C)
upgrade training. |
| 32. |
E03 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| The
crewmember interphone system on a large turbojet- powered airplane provides
a means of two-way communications between ground personnel and at least one
of two flight crewmembers in the pilot compartment, when the aircraft is on
the ground. |
| The
interphone station for use by ground personnel must be located so that those
using the system from that station |
| A) are
always visible from within the airplane. |
| B) may
avoid visible detection from within the airplane. |
| C) are
able to avoid the intake areas of the engines. |
| 33. |
E03 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which
document would constitute an approved change to the type design without
requiring a recertification? |
| A) An
approved Minimum Equipment List. |
| B) A
special flight permit. |
| C) The
Operations Specifications as approved by the Administrator. |
| 34. |
E03 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| No
person may operate an aircraft under 14 CFR part 135, carrying passengers
under VFR at night, unless |
| A) it is
equipped with a flashlight having at least two size 'D' cell or the
equivalent. |
| B) each
flight crewmember has a flashlight having at least two size 'D' batteries or
the equivalent. |
| C) each
crewmember has a flashlight having at least two size 'D' cells and a spare
bulb. |
| 35. |
E05 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| An
employee who performs safety-sensitive functions, for a certificate holder,
who has actual knowledge of an accident involving an aircraft for which he
or she performed a safety-sensitive function at or near the time of the
accident shall not use alcohol |
| A)
within 8 hours of the accident. |
| B) until
given a release by the NTSB or FAA. |
| C) until
4 hours after the accident. |
| 36. |
E06 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What is
the maximum number of hours that a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days as a
pilot in commercial flying and as a pilot for a commuter air carrier? |
| A) 34
hours. |
| B) 35
hours. |
| C) 32
hours. |
| 37. |
E01 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| The
pilot in command may deviate from 14 CFR Part 135 during an emergency
involving the safety of persons or property only |
| A) if
required to, by the emergency cockpit checklist. |
| B) after
ATC is notified of the emergency and the extent of deviation required. |
| C) to
the extent required to meet that emergency. |
| 38. |
E08 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| The
certificate holder must give instruction on such subjects as respiration,
hypoxia, gas expansion, and decompression to crewmembers who serve in
operations above |
| A) FL
180. |
| B) FL
250. |
| C) FL
200. |
| 39. |
E02 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Above
which altitude/flight level must at least one of the two pilots, at the
controls of a pressurized aircraft (with quick-donning masks) wear a secured
and sealed oxygen mask? |
| A) FL
300. |
| B) FL
250. |
| C) FL
350. |
| 40. |
E02 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| A flight
attendant crewmember is required on aircraft having a passenger seating
configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of |
| A) 19 or
more. |
| B) 20 or
more. |
| C) 15 or
more. |
| 41. |
E02 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Before
each takeoff, the pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers shall
ensure that all passengers have been orally briefed on the |
| A) use
of seatbelts, smoking, and location and use of survival equipment. |
| B)
location of normal and emergency exits, oxygen masks, and life preservers. |
| C) use
of safety belts, location and operation of fire extinguishers, and smoking. |
| 42. |
E02 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which
person, other than the second in command, may the pilot in command permit to
manipulate the flight controls? |
| A) A
pilot employed by an engineering firm who is authorized by the certificate
holder to conduct flight tests. |
| B) A
member of the National Transportation Safety Board who holds a pilot
certificate appropriate for the aircraft. |
| C) An
authorized FAA safety representative who is qualified in the aircraft, and
is checking flight operations. |
| 43. |
E02 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which
restriction must be observed regarding the carrying of cargo in the
passenger compartment? |
| A) It is
packaged or covered to avoid possible injury to occupants. |
| B) Cargo
carried in passenger seats must be forward of all passengers. |
| C) All
cargo must be carried in a suitable bin and secured to a passenger seat or
the floor structure of the aircraft. |
| 44. |
E02 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| A
commuter air carrier certificate holder plans to assign a pilot as pilot in
command of an aircraft having eight passenger seats to be used in
passenger-carrying operations. Which experience requirement must that pilot
meet if the aircraft is to be flown with an operative approved autopilot and
no second in command? |
| A) 50
hours and 10 landings as pilot in command in the make and model. |
| B) 100
hours as pilot in command in the category, class, and type. |
| C) 100
hours as pilot in command in the make and model. |
| 45. |
D14 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| In a
cargo-only operation, cargo must be loaded |
| A) in
such a manner that at least one emergency or regular exit is available to
all crewmembers, if an emergency occurs. |
| B) in
such a manner that at least one emergency or regular exit is available to
all occupants. |
| C) so
that it does not obstruct the aisle between the crew and cargo compartments. |
| 46. |
B10 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 168, 169, and 169A.) What action should be taken by
the pilot if communications are lost after departure from RWY 16 at PWK if
VMC? |
| A) Start
right turn within 1 mile of the departure end of RWY, remain east of ORD VOR/DME
R-345, and maintain 3,000 feet; 3 minutes after departure, turn direct to
PMM, and climb to FL 190. |
| B) Climb
to 3,000 feet; after 3 minutes, turn direct to PMM and climb to FL 190. |
| C)
Continue the flight under VMC and land as soon as practicable. |
| 47. |
E01 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| A
certificate holder must have 'exclusive use' of |
| A) at
least one aircraft that meets the requirements of the specific operations
authorized in the certificate holder's Operations Specifications. |
| B) at
least one aircraft that meets the requirements of each kind of operation
authorized in the Operations Specifications. |
| C) at
least one aircraft that meets the requirements of at least one kind of
operation authorized in the certificate holder's Operations Specifications. |
| 48. |
E06 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What
minimum rest period must be provided for a pilot assigned to Helicopter
Hospital Emergency Medical Evacuation Service (HEMES) who has been on duty
for a 47-hour period? |
| A) 16
consecutive hours. |
| B) 12
consecutive hours. |
| C) 14
consecutive hours. |
| 49. |
E01 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| If
previous arrangements have not been made by the operator, where can the
procedures for servicing the aircraft be found? |
| A)
Certificate holder's manual. |
| B)
Certificate holder's maintenance manual. |
| C)
Pilot's Handbook. |
| 50. |
E01 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| An
aircraft being operated outside of the United States, over a foreign
country, by a 14 CFR part 135 operator must comply with |
| A) rules
of the U.S. State Department and the foreign country. |
| B)
regulations of the foreign country. |
| C) the
International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO), Annex 3, Rules of the Air. |
| 51. |
E01 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What
document contains procedures that explain how the required return-to-service
conditions have been met? |
| A)
Maintenance manual. |
| B)
Certificate holder's manual. |
| C)
Pilot's Handbook. |
| 52. |
E02 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Where
must a certificate holder keep copies of completed load manifests and for
what period of time? |
| A) 30
days, at the flight's destination. |
| B) 1
month at its principal operations base, or at a location approved by the
Administrator. |
| C) 30
days at its principal operations base, or another location used by it and
approved by the Administrator. |
| 53. |
E03 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What are
the empty weight and balance currency requirements for aircraft used in air
taxi service? |
| A) The
empty weight and CG of multiengine aircraft must have been calculated from
an actual weighing within the previous 36 calendar months. |
| B) The
empty weight and CG of multiengine and single-engine aircraft must have been
calculated from an actual weighing within the previous 36 calendar months. |
| C) The
empty weight and CG must have been calculated from an actual weighing within
the previous 24 calendar months unless the original Airworthiness
Certificate was issued within the previous 36 calendar months. |
| 54. |
E03 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which
condition must be met to conduct IFR operations from an airport that is not
at the location where weather observations are made? |
| A) The
Administrator must issue Operations Specifications that permit the
procedure. |
| B) An
'Authorization Letter' permitting the procedure must be issued by the FAA
district office charged with the overall inspection of the certificate
holder.. |
| C) A
'Letter of Waiver' authorizing the procedure must be issued by the
Administrator, after an investigation by the U.S. National Weather Service
and the FSDO which find the standard of safety to be satisfactory. |
| 55. |
E03 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| In which
airplanes is a ground proximity warning system required? |
| A)
Turbine-powered aircraft having a passenger seating configuration, including
any pilot seat, of 10 seats or more. |
| B)
Turbine-powered airplanes having a passenger seating configuration,
excluding any pilot seat, of 10 seats or more. |
| C) All
airplanes having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot
seat, of 10 seats or more. |
| 56. |
E04 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Assuming
the required ceiling exists, an alternate for the destination airport is not
required if, for at least 1 hour before and after the ETA, the forecast
visibility is at least |
| A) 3
miles, or 2 miles more than the lowest applicable visibility minimums for
the instrument approach procedure to be used, whichever is greater. |
| B) 5
miles, or 3 miles more than the lowest applicable visibility minimums for
the instrument approach procedure to be used, whichever is greater. |
| C) 3
nautical miles, or 2 nautical miles more than the lowest applicable
visibility minimums for the approach procedure to be used, which ever is
greater. |
| 57. |
E03 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which
airplanes must have a shoulder harness installed at each flight crewmember
station? |
| A) All
airplanes operating under FAR Part 135, having a seating configuration for
10 persons. |
| B) All
turbojet-powered airplanes. |
| C) All
airplanes used in commuter air service, having a passenger seating
configuration of 9, excluding any pilot seat. |
| 58. |
E03 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which is
a requirement for life preservers during extended overwater operations? Each
life preserver must be equipped with |
| A) one
flashlight having at least two size 'D' cells or equivalent. |
| B) a dye
marker. |
| C) an
approved survivor locator light. |
| 59. |
E05 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What are
the minimum certificate and rating requirements for the pilot in command of
a multiengine airplane being operated by a commuter air carrier? |
| A)
Airline transport pilot; airplane category; multiengine class. |
| B)
Airline transport pilot; airplane category; multiengine class; airplane type
rating, if required. |
| C)
Commercial pilot; airplane category; multiengine class; instrument rating;
airplane type rating, if required. |
| 60. |
E03 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| A
pressurized airplane being operated at FL 330 can descend safely to 15,000
feet MSL in 3.5 minutes. What oxygen supply must be carried for all
occupants other than the pilots? |
| A) 60
minutes. |
| B) 30
minutes. |
| C) 45
minutes. |
| 61. |
E04 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which is
an operational requirement concerning ice, snow, or frost on structural
surfaces? |
| A) If
snow, ice, or frost is adhering to the airplane's lift or control surfaces,
but polished smooth, a takeoff may be made. |
| B) A
takeoff may be made with ice, snow, or frost adhering to the wings or
stabilizing or control surfaces, but polished smooth, if the anti-icing and
deicing equipment is operating. |
| C) A
takeoff may not be made if ice or snow is adhering to the wings or
stabilizing or control surfaces. |
| 62. |
E02 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| The load
manifest must be prepared prior to each takeoff for |
| A) any
aircraft with more than one engine. |
| B) any
aircraft with a passenger seating capacity of 10 seats or more. |
| C) all
helicopters and large aircraft operated by a commuter air carrier. |
| 63. |
E02 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What is
the minimum passenger seating configuration that requires a second in
command? |
| A) 12
seats. |
| B) 15
seats. |
| C) 10
seats. |
| 64. |
E02 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| During
which time period must a required voice recorder of a passenger-carrying
airplane be continuously operated? |
| A) From
engine start at departure airport to engine shutdown at landing airport. |
| B) From
the use of the checklist before the flight to completion of the final check
at the end of the flight. |
| C) From
the beginning of taxi to the end of the landing roll. |
| 65. |
E03 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| An
approved cockpit voice recorder is required equipment in |
| A)
multiengine, turbine-powered airplanes having a passenger seating
configuration of 20 or more seats. |
| B) all
aircraft operated in commuter air carrier service having a passenger seating
configuration of 20 seats or more. |
| C) large
turbine-powered airplanes having a maximum passenger capacity of 20 or more
seats. |
| 66. |
E03 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which
aircraft must be equipped with an approved public address and crewmember
interphone system? |
| A)
Multiengine aircraft having a passenger seating configuration of 10 seats or
more. |
| B) All
turbine-engine-powered aircraft having a seating configuration of more than
19 seats. |
| C)
Aircraft having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat,
of more than 19 seats. |
| 67. |
E03 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| The
weight and CG of an aircraft used in air taxi service must have been
calculated from those values established by actual weighing of the aircraft
within what period of time? |
| A)
Multiengine aircraft, last 36 calendar months; single-engine, last 24
calendar months. |
| B)
Multiengine and single-engine aircraft, preceding 36 calendar months. |
| C)
Multiengine aircraft, preceding 36 calendar months. |
| 68. |
E03 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What
performance is required of a multiengine airplane with the critical engine
inoperative, while carrying passengers for hire in IFR weather conditions? |
| A) Climb
at least 100 ft/min at the highest MEA of the route to be flown or 5,000
feet MSL, whichever is higher. |
| B) Climb
at least 50 ft/min at the MEA's of the route to be flown or 5,000 feet MSL,
whichever is higher. |
| C) Climb
at least 50 ft/min at the MEA's of the route to be flown or 5,000 feet AGL,
whichever is higher. |
| 69. |
E02 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which is
a requirement governing the carriage of carry-on baggage? |
| A) All
carry-on baggage must be restrained so that its movement is prevented during
air turbulence. |
| B)
Pieces of carry-on baggage weighing more than 10 pounds must be carried in
an approved rack or bin. |
| C)
Carry-on baggage must be stowed under the seat in front of the owner. |
| 70. |
E03 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| When a
crash ax is required equipment on an aircraft, where should it be located? |
| A) At a
location accessible to both the crew and passengers during normal
operations. |
| B) In
the flight crew compartment. |
| C) At a
location inaccessible to the passengers during normal operations. |
| 71. |
E03 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| How
many, if any, approved first aid kits are required on an aircraft having a
passenger seating configuration of 20 seats and a passenger load of 14? |
| A) Two. |
| B) One. |
| C) None. |
| 72. |
E03 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Airborne
weather radar equipment must be installed in large transport category
aircraft, in the conterminous 48 United States, |
| A) that
are engaged in passenger-carrying operations. |
| B) and
be fully operational, although weather forecasts indicate no hazardous
conditions. |
| C) that
are engaged in either cargo or passenger-carrying operations. |
| 73. |
E03 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which
performance requirement applies to passenger-carrying land airplanes being
operated over water? |
| A)
Multiengine airplanes must be able to climb, with the critical engine
inoperative, at least 100 ft/min at 1,000 feet above the surface. |
| B)
Single-engine airplanes must be operated at an altitude that will allow them
to reach land in case of engine failure. |
| C)
Multiengine airplanes must be able to climb, with the critical engine
inoperative, at least 50 ft/min at 1,500 feet above the surface. |
| 74. |
D21 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| If a
four-engine air carrier airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below
landing minimums, what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate
airport may be located from the departure airport? |
| A) Not
more than 2 hours at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine
inoperative. |
| B) Not
more than 2 hours at cruise speed with one engine inoperative. |
| C) Not
more than 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine
inoperative. |
| 75. |
D21 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| The
minimum weather conditions that must exist for an airport to be listed as an
alternate in the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight are |
| A) those
listed in the NOAA IAP charts for the alternate airport, from 1 hours before
or after the ETA for that flight. |
| B) those
listed in the NOAA IAP charts for the alternate airport, at the time the
flight is expected to arrive. |
| C) those
specified in the certificate holder's Operations Specifications for that
airport, when the flight arrives. |
| 76. |
D20 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which
passenger announcement(s) must be made after each takeoff? |
| A) How
to use the passenger oxygen system and that there is a $1,000 fine for
tampering with a smoke detector. |
| B) Keep
safety belts fastened while seated and no smoking in the aircraft
lavatories. |
| C)
Passengers should keep seat belts fastened while seated. |
| 77. |
D21 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| An
airport is not listed in a domestic Air Carrier's Operations Specifications
and does not have the prescribed takeoff weather minimums. What are the
minimum weather conditions required for takeoff? |
| A)
1000-1/2. |
| B)
900-1. |
| C)
800-2. |
| 78. |
D21 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| The
minimum weather conditions that must exist for a domestic air carrier flight
to take off from an airport that is not listed in the Air Carrier's
Operations Specifications (takeoff minimums are not prescribed for that
airport.) is |
| A) 1,000
- 1, 900 - 11/4, or 800 - 2. |
| B) 1,000
- 1, 900 - 11/2, or 800 - 2. |
| C) 800 -
2, 1,100 - 1, or 900 - 11/2. |
| 79. |
D21 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What
action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an
air carrier airplane? |
| A) Add
15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off. |
| B) Sweep
off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth. |
| C)
Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane. |
| 80. |
D05 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Who must
the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate
with, under normal conditions, along the entire route (in either direction)
of flight? |
| A)
Appropriate dispatch office. |
| B) Any
FSS. |
| C) ARINC. |
| 81. |
D18 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| How does
deadhead transportation, going to or from a duty assignment, affect the
computation of flight time limits for air carrier flight crewmembers? It is |
| A) not
considered to be part of a rest period. |
| B)
considered part of the rest period for flight engineers and navigators. |
| C)
considered part of the rest period if the flightcrew includes more than two
pilots. |
| 82. |
D21 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| A
domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground, at an
intermediate airport. How long before a redispatch release is required? |
| A) Not
more than 2 hours. |
| B) More
than 6 hours. |
| C) Not
more than 1 hour. |
| 83. |
D20 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Each
crewmember shall have readily available for individual use on each flight a |
| A)
flashlight in good working order. |
| B) key
to the flight deck door. |
| C)
certificate holder's manual. |
| 84. |
D20 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| If it
becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier
three-engine turbojet airplane, the pilot in command |
| A) may
continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing
at the nearest suitable airport. |
| B) may
continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft
dispatcher. |
| C) must
land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe
landing can be made. |
| 85. |
D20 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| An
aircraft dispatcher declares an emergency for a flight and a deviation
results. A written report shall be sent by the |
| A)
dispatcher to the FAA Administrator within 10 days. |
| B) pilot
in command to the FAA Administrator within 10 days. |
| C) air
carrier's operations manager to the FAA Administrator within 10 days. |
| 86. |
D20 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| When the
pilot in command is responsible for a deviation during an emergency, the
pilot should submit a written report within |
| A) 10
days after returning home. |
| B) 10
days after the deviation. |
| C) 10
days after returning to home base. |
| 87. |
D20 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Assuring
that appropriate aeronautical charts are aboard an aircraft is the
responsibility of the |
| A)
flight navigator. |
| B) pilot
in command. |
| C)
aircraft dispatcher. |
| 88. |
D20 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| When
carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft, which of the following
applies? |
| A)
Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the passenger. |
| B) The
passenger must have access to a seat in the pilot compartment. |
| C) The
pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew
compartment. |
| 89. |
D22 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| The
information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers and
commercial operators that is not required in the dispatch release for flag
and domestic air carriers is the |
| A)
minimum fuel supply. |
| B)
weather reports and forecasts. |
| C) names
of all crewmembers. |
| 90. |
D20 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Below
what altitude, except when in cruise flight, are non-safety related cockpit
activities by flight crewmembers prohibited? |
| A) FL
180. |
| B)
14,500 feet. |
| C)
10,000 feet. |
| 91. |
D13 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Where is
a list maintained for routes that require special navigation equipment? |
| A)
International Flight Information Manual. |
| B) Air
Carrier's Operations Specifications. |
| C)
Airplane Flight Manual. |
| 92. |
D21 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| When a
pilot's flight time consists of 80 hours' pilot in command in a particular
type airplane, how does this affect the minimums for the destination
airport? |
| A) Has
no effect on destination but alternate minimums are no less than 300 and 1. |
| B)
Minimums are increased by 100 feet and 1/2 mile. |
| C)
Minimums are decreased by 100 feet and 1/2 mile. |
| 93. |
I13 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 115, 116, 117, 118, 118A, 118B, and 118C.) |
| At ARLIN
Intersection, PTL 130 is notified that the Phoenix Sky Harbor Airport is
closed. PTL 130 is told to proceed to Tucson. PTL 130 is operating under FAR
Part 121. The PIC on PTL 130 has less than 100 hours as PIC in the B-727
(approach category C). |
| What are
the PIC's minimums for the VOR RWY 11L approach at Tucson Intl Airport? |
| A)
2,960-1. |
| B)
2,860-1/2. |
| C)
2,900-1. |
| 94. |
D21 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Under
what conditions may an air carrier pilot continue an instrument approach to
the DH, after receiving a weather report indicating that less than minimum
published landing conditions exist at the airport? |
| A) If
the instrument approach is conducted in a radar environment. |
| B) When
the weather report is received after the pilot has begun the final approach
segment of the instrument approach. |
| C) When
the weather report is received as the pilot passes the FAF. |
| 95. |
D21 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| If a
required instrument on a multiengine airplane becomes inoperative, which
document dictates whether the flight may continue en route? |
| A) An
approved Minimum Equipment List for the airplane. |
| B)
Certificate holder's manual. |
| C)
Original dispatch release. |
| 96. |
D21 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| The
reserve fuel supply for a domestic air carrier flight is |
| A) 30
minutes plus 15 percent at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel
required to the alternate airport. |
| B) 45
minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the
alternate airport. |
| C) 45
minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to fly
to and land at the most distant alternate airport. |
| 97. |
D21 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| By
regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air
carrier airplane information concerning weather, and irregularities of
facilities and services? |
| A) Air
route traffic control center. |
| B) The
aircraft dispatcher. |
| C)
Director of operations. |
| 98. |
D21 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Where
can the pilot of a flag air carrier airplane find the latest FDC NOTAM's? |
| A)
Notices To Airmen publication. |
| B)
Airport/Facility Directory. |
| C) Any
company dispatch facility. |
| 99. |
D21 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Category
II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the
pilot in command has |
| A)
logged 100 hours' flight time in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part
121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR
conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding
month. |
| B)
logged 90 hours' flight time, 10 takeoffs and landings in make and model
airplane and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR
conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding
month, in operations under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121. |
| C) made
at least six Category II approaches in actual IFR conditions with 100-foot
DH within the preceding 12 calendar months. |
| 100. |
D11 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| An
airplane operated by a commercial operator flying over uninhabited terrain
must carry which emergency equipment? |
| A)
Survival kit for each passenger. |
| B) A
signal mirror and colored smoke flares. |
| C) An
approved survival-type emergency locator transmitter. |
| 101. |
D11 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which
emergency equipment is required for a flag air carrier flight between John
F. Kennedy International Airport and London, England? |
| A) A
self-buoyant, water resistant, portable survival-type emergency locator
transmitter for each required liferaft. |
| B) A
life preserver equipped with an approved survivor locator light or other
flotation device for the full seating capacity of the airplane. |
| C) An
appropriately equipped survival kit attached to each required liferaft. |
| 102. |
D11 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| For a
flight over uninhabited terrain, an airplane operated by a flag or
supplemental air carrier must carry enough appropriately equipped survival
kits for |
| A) all
passenger seats. |
| B) all
aircraft occupants. |
| C) all
of the passengers, plus 10 percent. |
| 103. |
D22 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What
information must the pilot in command of a supplemental air carrier flight
or commercial operator carry to the destination airport? |
| A) Names
of all crewmembers and designated pilot in command. |
| B) Copy
of the flight plan. |
| C) Cargo
and passenger distribution information. |
| 104. |
D11 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| An
airplane operated by a supplemental air carrier flying over uninhabited
terrain must carry which emergency equipment? |
| A)
Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices. |
| B)
Survival kit for each passenger. |
| C)
Colored smoke flares and a signal mirror. |
| 105. |
D11 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| If there
is a required emergency exit located in the flightcrew compartment, the door
which separates the compartment from the passenger cabin must be |
| A)
unlocked during takeoff and landing. |
| B)
latched open during takeoff and landing. |
| C)
locked at all times, except during any emergency declared by the pilot in
command. |
| 106. |
D11 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which
factor determines the minimum number of hand fire extinguishers required for
flight under FAR Part 121? |
| A)
Airplane passenger seating accommodations. |
| B)
Number of passenger cabin occupants. |
| C)
Number of passengers and crewmembers aboard. |
| 107. |
D11 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| A
crewmember interphone system is required on which airplane? |
| A) A
large airplane. |
| B) An
airplane with more than 19 passenger seats. |
| C) A
turbojet airplane. |
| 108. |
D11 |
ATP |
|
|
|
|
Information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in
a large pressurized airplane with four reciprocating engines |
| A) may
be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes prior to
landing. |
| B) may
all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes. |
| C) may
all be erased, as the voice recorder is not required on an aircraft with
reciprocating engines. |
| 109. |
D11 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| The
emergency lights on a passenger carrying airplane must be armed or turned on
during |
| A)
takeoff, cruise, and landing. |
| B)
taxiing, takeoff, cruise, and landing. |
| C)
taxiing, takeoff, and landing. |
| 110. |
D11 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| When an
air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on 'victor
airways,' which navigation equipment is required to be installed in
duplicate? |
| A) VOR
and DME. |
| B) VOR. |
| C) ADF. |
| 111. |
D11 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| When
must an air carrier airplane be DME equipped? |
| A) For
flights at or above FL 180. |
| B)
Whenever VOR navigational receivers are required. |
| C) In
Class E airspace for all IFR or VFR on Top operations. |
| 112. |
D11 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Where
should the portable battery-powered megaphone be located if only one is
required on a passenger-carrying airplane? |
| A) In
the cabin near the over-the-wing emergency exit. |
| B) The
most forward location in the passenger cabin. |
| C) The
most rearward location in the passenger cabin. |
| 113. |
D11 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| When may
two persons share one approved safety belt in a lounge seat? |
| A) Only
during the en route flight. |
| B)
During all operations except the takeoff and landing portion of a flight. |
| C) When
one is an adult and one is a child under 3 years of age. |
| 114. |
D11 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| If
either pilot of an air carrier airplane leaves the duty station while flying
at FL 410, the other pilot |
| A) must
have a quick-donning type oxygen mask available. |
| B) and
the flight engineer shall put on their oxygen masks and breath oxygen. |
| C) shall
put on the oxygen mask and breathe oxygen. |
| 115. |
D11 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| If a
passenger-carrying landplane is required to have an automatic deploying
escape slide system, when must this system be armed? |
| A)
During taxi, takeoff, landing, and after ditching. |
| B) Only
for takeoff and landing. |
| C) For
taxi, takeoff, and landing. |
| 116. |
D11 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| The
supplemental oxygen requirements for passengers when a flight is operated at
FL 250 is dependent upon the airplane's ability to make an emergency descent
to a flight altitude of |
| A)
14,000 feet within 4 minutes. |
| B)
12,000 feet within 4 minutes or at a minimum rate of 2,500 ft/min, whichever
is quicker. |
| C)
10,000 feet within 4 minutes. |
| 117. |
D11 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| When a
pilot plans a flight using NDB NAVAIDS, which rule applies? |
| A) The
airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of VOR NAVAIDS, to a
suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining
airplane radio system. |
| B) The
pilot must be able to return to the departure airport using other navigation
radios. |
| C) The
airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of VOR NAVAIDS, to a
suitable airport and land. |
| 118. |
D14 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| If a
flight crewmember completes a required annual flight check in December 1987
and the required annual recurrent flight check in January 1989, the latter
check is considered to have been taken in |
| A)
January 1989. |
| B)
November 1988. |
| C)
December 1988. |
| 119. |
D15 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| A pilot
in command must complete a proficiency check or simulator training within
the preceding |
| A) 24
calendar months. |
| B) 6
calendar months. |
| C) 12
calendar months. |
| 120. |
D15 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What is
one of the requirements that must be met by an airline pilot to re-establish
recency of experience? |
| A) At
least one landing must be made from a circling approach. |
| B) At
least one precision approach must be made to the lowest minimums authorized
for the certificate holder. |
| C) At
least one full stop landing must be made. |
| 121. |
D15 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What are
the line check requirements for the pilot in command for a domestic air
carrier? |
| A) The
line check is required only when the pilot is scheduled to fly into special
areas and airports. |
| B) The
line check is required every 12 calendar months in one of the types of
airplanes to be flown. |
| C) The
line check is required every 12 months in each type aircraft in which the
pilot may fly. |
| 122. |
D16 |
ATP |
|
|
|
|
Normally, a dispatcher should be scheduled for no more than |
| A) 10
hours of duty in any 24 consecutive hours. |
| B) 8
hours of service in any 24 consecutive hours. |
| C) 10
consecutive hours of duty. |
| 123. |
D14 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| How
often must a crewmember actually operate the airplane emergency equipment,
after initial training? Once every |
| A) 6
calendar months. |
| B) 24
calendar months. |
| C) 12
calendar months. |
| 124. |
D18 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| A flag
air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane, having two pilots
and one additional flight crewmember, for no more than |
| A) 8
hours during any 12 consecutive hours. |
| B) 12
hours during any 24 consecutive hours. |
| C) 10
hours during any 12 consecutive hours. |
| 125. |
D19 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| The
maximum number of hours that a supplemental air carrier pilot may fly, as a
crewmember, in a commercial operation, in any 30 consecutive days is |
| A) 120
hours. |
| B) 300
hours. |
| C) 100
hours. |
| 126. |
D10 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What
restrictions must be observed regarding the carrying of cargo in the
passenger compartment of an airplane operated under FAR Part 121? |
| A) All
cargo must be separated from the passengers by a partition capable of
withstanding certain load stresses. |
| B) Cargo
may be carried aft of a divider if properly secured by a safety belt or
other tiedown devices to withstand certain load stresses. |
| C) All
cargo must be carried in a suitable flame resistant bin and the bin must be
secured to the floor structure of the airplane. |
| 127. |
D11 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| At which
cabin altitude must oxygen be provided for all passengers during the entire
flight at those altitudes? |
| A)
14,000 feet. |
| B)
16,000 feet. |
| C)
15,000 feet. |
| 128. |
D13 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Under
which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in FAR
Part 121 operations? |
| A) If
the airplane is being flown on proving flights, with revenue cargo aboard. |
| B) If
required by the airplane's type certificate. |
| C) If
the airplane is powered by more than two turbine engines. |
| 129. |
D14 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| The air
carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration, hypoxia, and
decompression to crewmembers serving on pressurized airplanes operated above |
| A) FL
250. |
| B) FL
180. |
| C) FL
200. |
| 130. |
D13 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| The 'age
60 rule' of FAR Part 121 applies to |
| A) any
flight crewmember. |
| B) any
required pilot crewmember. |
| C) the
pilot in command only. |
| 131. |
D11 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which
equipment requirement must be met by an air carrier that elects to use a
dual Inertial Navigation System (INS) on a proposed flight? |
| A) Only
one INS is required to be operative, if a Doppler Radar is substituted for
the other INS. |
| B) The
dual system must consist of two operative INS units. |
| C) A
dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS. |
| 132. |
D13 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which
document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be
performed in the event of an emergency? |
| A)
Airplane Flight Manual. |
| B)
Pilot's Emergency Procedures Handbook. |
| C)
Certificate holder's manual. |
| 133. |
D13 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| A flight
navigator or a specialized means of navigation is required aboard an air
carrier airplane operated outside the 48 contiguous United States and
District of Columbia when |
| A)
operations are conducted IFR or VFR on Top. |
| B) the
airplane's position cannot be reliably fixed for a period of more than 1
hour. |
| C)
operations are conducted over water more than 50 miles from shore. |
| 134. |
B10 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Unless
otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding altitude and course to be
maintained by a helicopter during an off-airways IFR flight over
non-mountainous terrain? |
| A) 1,500
feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 3 statute
miles of course. |
| B) 1,000
feet above the highest obstacle within 5 statute miles of course. |
| C) 2,000
feet above the highest obstacle within 5 statute miles of course. |
| 135. |
A20 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Unless
otherwise authorized, when is the pilot in command required to hold a type
rating? |
| A) When
operating an aircraft that is certificated for more than one pilot. |
| B) When
operating a multiengine aircraft having a gross weight of more than 6,000
pounds. |
| C) When
operating an aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds. |
| 136. |
A20 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| When a
temporary replacement is received for an airman's medical certificate, for
what maximum time is this document valid? |
| A) 30
days. |
| B) 90
days. |
| C) 60
days. |
| 137. |
B07 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| A person
may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have
been consumed by that person within the preceding |
| A) 12
hours. |
| B) 24
hours. |
| C) 8
hours. |
| 138. |
B15 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| For what
purpose may cockpit voice recorders and flight data recorders NOT be used? |
| A)
Identifying procedures that may have been conducive to any accident, or
occurrence resulting in investigation under NTSB Part 830. |
| B)
Determining causes of accidents and occurrences under investigation by the
NTSB. |
| C)
Determining any certificate action, or civil penalty, arising out of an
accident or occurrence. |
| 139. |
B10 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| After
experiencing two-way radio communications failure en route, when should a
pilot begin the descent for the instrument approach? |
| A) Upon
arrival at the holding fix depicted on the instrument approach procedure at
the corrected ETA, plus or minus 3 minutes. |
| B) Upon
arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure
but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. |
| C) At
the primary initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure at
the ETA shown on the flight plan or the EFC time, whichever is later. |
| 140. |
E09 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| When
computing the takeoff data, what is the percentage of the reported headwind
component that may be applied to the 'still air' data? |
| A) Not
more than 100 percent. |
| B) Not
more than 50 percent. |
| C) Not
more than 150 percent. |
| 141. |
D13 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What
document(s) must be in a person's possession for that person to act as a
flight navigator? |
| A)
Third-Class Medical Certificate and current Flight Navigator Certificate. |
| B)
Current Flight Navigator Certificate and a current Second-Class (or higher)
Medical Certificate. |
| C)
Current Flight Navigator Certificate and a valid passport. |
| 142. |
B15 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which
operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when
ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility
to another to repair an inoperative engine? |
| A) The
existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be
VFR. |
| B) No
passengers may be carried. |
| C) The
computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the
effective runway length. |
| 143. |
A21 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| How soon
after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall
it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division? |
| A) No
later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action. |
| B) No
later than 30 working days after the motor vehicle action. |
| C)
Required to be reported upon renewal of medical certificate. |
| 144. |
A02 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which is
the correct symbol for design cruising speed? |
| A) VC. |
| B) VMA. |
| C) VS. |
| 145. |
A01 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What is
the name of a plane beyond the end of a runway which does not contain
obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance of
turbine-powered aircraft? |
| A)
Stopway. |
| B)
Obstruction clearance plane. |
| C)
Clearway. |
| 146. |
A01 |
ATP |
|
|
|
|
"Operational control" of a flight refers to |
| A)
exercising the privileges of pilot in command of an aircraft. |
| B) the
specific duties of any required crewmember. |
| C)
exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight. |
| 147. |
A25 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| In a
24-hour consecutive period, what is the maximum time, excluding briefing and
debriefing, that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air
transportation service? |
| A) 6
hours. |
| B) 10
hours. |
| C) 8
hours. |
| 148. |
A20 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| An
applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport
pilot certificate, in an approved flight simulator, is |
| A) not
required to have a medical certificate. |
| B)
required to have a first-class medical certificate. |
| C)
required to have at least a current third-class medical certificate. |
| 149. |
A21 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What
recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the
original issue of a Category II authorization? |
| A)
Within the previous 12 calendar months, six ILS approaches flown by use of
an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH. |
| B)
Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be
flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. |
| C)
Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown manually to the
Category I DH. |
| 150. |
A20 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What
instrument flight time may be logged by a second in command of an aircraft
requiring two pilots? |
| A)
One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan. |
| B) All
of the time the second in command is controlling the airplane solely by
reference to flight instruments. |
| C)
One-half the time the airplane is in actual IFR conditions. |
| 151. |
A25 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| A
commercial pilot has a type rating in a B-727 and B-737. A flight test is
completed in a B-747 for the Airline Transport Pilot Certificate. What pilot
privileges may be exercised regarding these airplanes? |
| A) ATP -
B-747; Commercial - B-727 and B-737. |
| B) ATP -
B-747, B-727, and B-737. |
| C)
Commercial - B-737; ATP - B-727 and B-747. |
| 152. |
B08 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| At what
minimum altitude is a turbine- engine-powered, or large airplane, required
to enter Class D airspace? |
| A) 2,000
feet AGL. |
| B) 2,500
feet AGL. |
| C) 1,500
feet AGL. |
| 153. |
B08 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| A pilot
of a turbine-powered airplane should climb as rapidly as practicable after
taking off to what altitude? |
| A) 1,000
feet AGL. |
| B) 5,000
feet AGL. |
| C) 1,500
feet AGL. |
| 154. |
B10 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What
minimum ground visibility may be used instead of a prescribed visibility
criteria of RVR 16 when that RVR value is not reported? |
| A) 1/4
SM. |
| B) 3/8
SM. |
| C) 3/4
SM. |
| 155. |
B11 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| A
function of the minimum equipment list is to indicate instruments or
equipment which |
| A) may
be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft. |
| B) are
required to be operative for overwater passenger air carrier flights. |
| C) may
be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a
maintenance base. |
| 156. |
B11 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| When is
DME required for an instrument flight? |
| A) Above
12,500 feet MSL. |
| B) In
terminal radar service areas. |
| C) At or
above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required. |
| 157. |
B10 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which
ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in
addition to LOC, glide slope, marker beacons, and approach lights? |
| A) Radar
and RVR. |
| B) HIRL,
TDZL, RCLS, and RVR. |
| C) RCLS
and REIL. |
| 158. |
B10 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| In
addition to the localizer, glide slope, marker beacons, approach lighting,
and HIRL, which ground components are required to be operative for a
Category II instrument approach to a DH below 150 feet AGL? |
| A) Radar
and RVR. |
| B) RCLS
and REIL. |
| C) TDZL,
RCLS, and RVR. |
| 159. |
B11 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| In
addition to a two-way radio capable of communicating with ATC on appropriate
frequencies, which equipment is the helicopter required to have to operate
within Class B airspace? (Letter of agreement not applicable.) |
| A) DME,
a VOR or TACAN receiver, and an appropriate transponder beacon. |
| B) An
appropriate radar beacon transponder. |
| C) A VOR
or TACAN receiver. |
| 160. |
B10 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| When
must the pilot initiate a missed approach procedure from an ILS approach? |
| A) At
the DH, if the visual references for the intended runway are not distinctly
visible or anytime thereafter that visual reference is lost. |
| B) When
the time has expired after reaching the DH and the runway environment is not
clearly visible. |
| C) At
the DH when the runway is not clearly visible. |
| 161. |
B10 |
ATP |
|
|
|
|
According to FAR Part 91, when takeoff minimums are not prescribed for a
civil airport, what are the takeoff minimums under IFR for a multiengine
helicopter? |
| A) 1 SM
visibility |
| B) 1200
RVR. |
| C) 1/2
SM visibility. |
| 162. |
B10 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What is
the maximum permissible variation between the two bearing indicators on a
dual VOR system when checking one VOR against the other? |
| A) 6° on
the ground and in flight. |
| B) 6° in
flight and 4° on the ground. |
| C) 4° on
the ground and in flight. |
| 163. |
B10 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| The
visibility criteria for a particular instrument approach procedure is RVR
40. What minimum ground visibility may be substituted for the RVR value? |
| A) 3/4
SM. |
| B) 5/8
SM. |
| C) 7/8
SM. |
| 164. |
B08 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| During
an emergency, a pilot in command does not deviate from an FAR rule but is
given priority by ATC. To whom or under what condition is the pilot required
to submit a written report? |
| A) Upon
request by ATC, submit a written report to the ATC manager. |
| B) To
the manager of the facility in control at the time of the deviation. |
| C) To
the manager of the General Aviation District Office. |
| 165. |
B10 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What
action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in
controlled airspace? |
| A)
Notify ATC immediately. |
| B)
Monitor the VOR receiver. |
| C)
Squawk 7600. |
| 166. |
B10 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Under
which condition, if any, may a pilot descend below DH or MDA when using the
ALSF-1 approach light system as the primary visual reference for the
intended runway? |
| A)
Descent to the intended runway is authorized as long as any portion of the
approach light system can be seen. |
| B) The
approach light system can be used as a visual reference, except that descent
below 100 feet above TDZE requires that the red light bars be visible and
identifiable. |
| C) Under
no condition can the approach light system serve as a necessary visual
reference for descent below DH or MDA. |
| 167. |
B10 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| While in
IFR conditions, a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure.
Which route should be flown in the absence of an ATC assigned route or a
route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance? |
| A) The
most direct route to the filed alternate airport. |
| B) The
route filed in the flight plan. |
| C) An
off-airway route to the point of departure. |
| 168. |
B08 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| A pilot
approaching to land a turbine-powered aircraft on a runway served by a VASI
shall |
| A)
maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is
necessary for a safe landing. |
| B) use
the VASI only when weather conditions are below basic VFR. |
| C) not
use the VASI unless a clearance for a VASI approach is received. |
| 169. |
I56 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| KFTW UA/OV
DFW/TM 1645/FL100/TP PA30/SK SCT031-TOP043/BKN060-TOP085/OVC097-TOPUNKN/WX
FV00SM RA/TA 07. |
| This
pilot report to Fort Worth (KFTW) indicates |
| A) the
aircraft is in light rain. |
| B) the
ceiling at KDFW is 6,000 feet. |
| C) that
the top of the ceiling is 4,300 feet. |
| 170. |
I57 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| The TWEB
Route Forecasts and Synopses are issued by the Weather Forecast Offices (WFOs)four
times per day. The TWEB forecast is valid for an |
| A)
8-hour period. |
| B)
15-hour period. |
| C)
12-hour period. |
| 171. |
J35 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 99 and 101.) Which frequency should be selected to
check airport conditions and weather prior to departure at DFW Intl? |
| A) 117.0
MHz. |
| B) 135.5
MHz. |
| C) 134.9
MHz. |
| 172. |
I32 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Where
are jetstreams normally located? |
| A) At
the tropopause where intensified temperature gradients are located. |
| B) In
areas of strong low pressure systems in the stratosphere. |
| C) In a
single continuous band, encircling the Earth, where there is a break between
the equatorial and polar tropopause. |
| 173. |
I32 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which
feature is associated with the tropopause? |
| A)
Absence of wind and turbulence. |
| B)
Abrupt change of temperature lapse rate. |
| C)
Absolute upper limit of cloud formation. |
| 174. |
I55 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| If
squalls are reported at the destination airport, what wind conditions
existed at the time? |
| A)
Sudden increases in wind speed of at least 15 knots to a sustained wind
speed of 20 knots, lasting for at least 1 minute. |
| B) Rapid
variation in wind direction of at least 20° and changes in speed of at least
10 knots between peaks and lulls. |
| C) A
sudden increase in wind speed of at least 16 knots, the speed rising to 22
knots or more for 1 minute or longer. |
| 175. |
I57 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figure 147.) At which time is IFR weather first predicted at
Lubbock (KLBB)? |
| A)
2100Z. |
| B)
0400Z. |
| C)
0100Z. |
| 176. |
I57 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figure 149.) What will be the wind and temperature trend for
an SAT ELP TUS flight at 16,000 feet? |
| A)
Temperature decrease slightly. |
| B) Wind
direction shift from southwest to east. |
| C)
Windspeed decrease. |
| 177. |
M08 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Test
data indicate that ice, snow, or frost having a thickness and roughness
similar to medium or coarse sandpaper on the leading edge and upper surface
of a wing can |
| A)
reduce lift by as much as 30 percent and increase drag by 40 percent. |
| B)
increase drag and reduce lift by as much as 40 percent. |
| C)
reduce lift by as much as 40 percent and increase drag by 30 percent. |
| 178. |
I34 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which
weather condition is present when the tropical storm is upgraded to a
hurricane? |
| A)
Highest windspeed, 100 knots or more. |
| B)
Sustained winds of 65 knots or more. |
| C) A
clear area or hurricane eye has formed. |
| 179. |
I32 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which
type clouds may be associated with the jetstream? |
| A)
Cumulonimbus cloud line where the jetstream crosses the cold front. |
| B)
Cirrostratus cloud band on the polar side and under the jetstream. |
| C)
Cirrus clouds on the equatorial side of the jetstream. |
| 180. |
I55 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figure 145.) What condition is reported at Childress (KCDS)? |
| A) Light
rain showers. |
| B) The
ceiling is solid overcast at an estimated 1,800 feet above sea level. |
| C) Heavy
rain showers began 42 minutes after the hour. |
| 181. |
K01 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What
action is recommended when encountering turbulence due to a wind shift
associated with a sharp pressure trough? |
| A)
Establish a course across the trough. |
| B)
Increase speed to get out of the trough as soon as possible. |
| C) Climb
or descend to a smoother level. |
| 182. |
K04 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figure 144.) How will the aircraft in position 4 be affected
by a microburst encounter? |
| A)
Performance increasing with a tailwind and updraft. |
| B)
Performance decreasing with a headwind and downdraft. |
| C)
Performance decreasing with a tailwind and downdraft. |
| 183. |
I24 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which
conditions result in the formation of frost? |
| A) The
temperature of the collecting surface is at or below freezing and small
droplets of moisture are falling. |
| B)
Temperature of the collecting surface is below the dewpoint and the dewpoint
is also below freezing. |
| C) Dew
collects on the surface and then freezes because the surface temperature is
lower than the air temperature. |
| 184. |
I25 |
ATP |
|
|
|
|
Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat
to instrument flight? |
| A)
Freezing rain. |
| B)
Embedded thunderstorms. |
| C) Clear
air turbulence. |
| 185. |
I61 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 4, figures 25, 26, and 27.) Interpret the path of the jetstream. |
| A)
Southern California, Nevada, Utah, Nebraska/Kansas, and then southeastward. |
| B) The
Alaska area, across Canada to Montana, South Dakota, then across the Great
Lakes area. |
| C)
Oregon, Idaho, Wyoming, Nebraska, Iowa, and across the Great Lakes. |
| 186. |
I30 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| If
severe turbulence is encountered, which procedure is recommended? |
| A)
Maintain a constant altitude. |
| B)
Maintain constant airspeed and altitude. |
| C)
Maintain a constant attitude. |
| 187. |
I60 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figure 152.) What weather conditions are depicted in the area
indicated by arrow B on the Radar Summary Chart? |
| A) Weak
echoes; heavy rain showers; area movement toward the southeast. |
| B)
Strong echoes; moderate rain showers; no cell movement. |
| C) Weak
to moderate echoes; rain showers increasing in intensity. |
| 188. |
I59 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What is
indicated on the Weather Depiction Chart by a continuous smooth line
enclosing a hatched geographic area? |
| A) The
entire area has ceilings less than 1,000 feet and/or visibility less than 3
miles. |
| B)
Reporting stations within the enclosed area are all showing IFR conditions
at the time of the report. |
| C) More
than 50 percent of the area enclosed by the smooth line is predicted to have
IFR conditions. |
| 189. |
I30 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Where do
squall lines most often develop? |
| A) Ahead
of a cold front. |
| B) In an
occluded front. |
| C)
Behind a stationary front. |
| 190. |
H125 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What is
the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the
dimensions of 81 X 83 inches? |
| Floor
load limit - 180 lb/sq ft |
| Pallet
weight - 82 lb |
| Tiedown
devices - 31 lb |
| A)
8,403.7 pounds. |
| B)
8,290.8 pounds. |
| C)
8,321.8 pounds. |
| 191. |
H129 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 3, 6, 8, 9, 10, and 11.) What is the CG in inches
from datum under Loading Conditions BE-1? |
| A)
Station 290.3. |
| B)
Station 291.8. |
| C)
Station 285.8. |
| 192. |
H125 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What is
the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the
dimensions of 36.5 X 48.5 inches? |
| Floor load limit |
112 lb/sq ft |
|
|
|
|
| Pallet weight |
45 lb |
|
|
|
|
| Tiedown devices |
29 lb |
|
|
|
|
| A)
1,331.8 pounds. |
| B)
1,347.8 pounds. |
| C)
1,302.8 pounds. |
| 193. |
H130 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 30, 31, 32, 33, and 34.) Given Loading Conditions
BL-6, what is the effect on lateral CG if the outside passengers from each
row on the left side are deplaned? Deplaned passenger weights are 170 pounds
each. |
| A) CG
shifts 1.5 inches right, out of limits. |
| B) CG
shifts 1.6 inches left, out of limits. |
| C) CG
shifts 1.4 inches right, within limits. |
| 194. |
H129 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 30, 32, 33, and 35.) What limit, if any, is exceeded
under Loading Conditions BL-10? |
| A) No
limit is exceeded. |
| B)
Forward CG limit is exceeded at landing. |
| C) Aft
CG limit is exceeded at takeoff. |
| 195. |
H129 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 77, 79, and 80.) What is the gross weight index for
Loading Conditions WT-6? |
| A)
181,340.5 index. |
| B)
165,991.5 index. |
| C)
156,545.0 index. |
| 196. |
H129 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figure 44.) What is the new CG if the weight is removed from
the forward compartment under Loading Conditions WS 1? |
| A) 27.1
percent MAC. |
| B) 30.0
percent MAC. |
| C) 26.8
percent MAC. |
| 197. |
H129 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figure 44.) Where is the new CG if the weight is shifted from
the forward to the aft compartment under Loading Conditions WS 5? |
| A)
+19.15 index arm. |
| B)
-97.92 index arm. |
| C)
+13.93 index arm. |
| 198. |
H125 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What is
the maximum allowable weight that may be carried on a pallet which has the
dimensions of 96.1 X 133.3 inches? |
| Floor load limit |
249 lb/sq ft |
|
|
|
|
| Pallet weight |
347 lb |
|
|
|
|
| Tiedown devices |
134 lb |
|
|
|
|
| A)
21,669.8 pounds. |
| B)
22,120.8 pounds. |
| C)
21,803.8 pounds. |
| 199. |
H129 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 3, 6, 8, 9, 10, and 11.) What is the CG shift if the
passengers in row 1 are moved to seats in row 9 under Loading Conditions
BE-1? |
| A) 6.2
inches aft. |
| B) 1.5
inches aft. |
| C) 5.6
inches aft. |
| 200. |
H129 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 29, 31, 32, and 33.) What is the CG shift if all
passengers in row 1 are moved to row 4 under Operating Conditions BL-1? |
| A) 5.0
inches aft. |
| B) 0.19
inch aft. |
| C) 4.1
inches aft. |
| 201. |
H130 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 29, 31, 32, and 33.) Where is the longitudinal CG
located under Operating Conditions BL-5? |
| A)
Station 232.0. |
| B)
Station 234.9. |
| C)
Station 235.4. |
| 202. |
H539 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What are
some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft limit? |
| A)
Lowest stall speed, lowest cruise speed, and highest stability. |
| B)
Highest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability. |
| C)
Lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability. |
| 203. |
J18 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| A
minimum instrument altitude for enroute operations off of published airways
which provides obstruction clearance of 1,000 feet in nonmountainous terrain
areas and 2,000 feet in designated mountainous areas within the United
States is called |
| A)
Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude (MOCA) |
| B)
Minimum Safe/Sector Altitude (MSA) |
| C)
Off-Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude (OROCA) |
| 204. |
J06 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figure 127.) Which altitude is appropriate for circle 6 (top
of Class G airspace)? |
| A) 500
feet AGL. |
| B) 1,200
feet AGL. |
| C) 700
feet AGL. |
| 205. |
J06 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figure 126.) What is the radius from the airport of the inner
circle (now called surface area), C? |
| A) 5
miles. |
| B) 10
miles. |
| C) 7
miles. |
| 206. |
J14 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Each
pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS II,
resolution advisory (RA)is expected to |
| A)
maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has
radar contact. |
| B)
notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable. |
| C)
request ATC clearance for the deviation. |
| 207. |
H833 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Where
does the DME indicator have the greatest error between the ground distance
and displayed distance to the VORTAC? |
| A) Low
altitudes close to the VORTAC. |
| B) High
altitudes close to the VORTAC. |
| C) Low
altitudes far from the VORTAC. |
| 208. |
J01 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Within
what frequency range does the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate? |
| A)
108.10 to 111.95 MHz. |
| B)
108.10 to 118.10 MHz. |
| C)
108.10 to 117.95 MHz. |
| 209. |
T03 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What
recovery would be appropriate in the event of compressor stall? |
| A)
Reduce throttle, reduce airspeed, and increase angle of attack. |
| B)
Advance throttle, lower angle of attack, and reduce airspeed. |
| C)
Reduce fuel flow, reduce angle of attack, and increase airspeed. |
| 210. |
T01 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| An
outside air pressure decreases, thrust output will |
| A)
remain the same since compression of inlet air will compensate for any
decrease in air pressure. |
| B)
increase due to greater efficiency of jet aircraft in thin air. |
| C)
decrease due to higher density altitude. |
| 211. |
T05 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| The most
important restriction to the operation of turbojet or turboprop engines is |
| A)
limiting compressor speed. |
| B)
limiting torque. |
| C)
limiting exhaust gas temperature. |
| 212. |
T24 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which
place in the turbojet engine is subjected to the highest temperature? |
| A)
Turbine inlet. |
| B) Fuel
spray nozzles. |
| C)
Compressor discharge. |
| 213. |
T05 |
ATP |
|
|
|
|
Equivalent shaft horsepower (ESHP) of a turboprop engine is a measure of |
| A)
turbine inlet temperature. |
| B)
propeller thrust only. |
| C) shaft
horsepower and jet thrust. |
| 214. |
T03 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| How
should thrust reversers be applied to reduce landing distance for turbojet
aircraft? |
| A)
Immediately prior to touchdown. |
| B) After
applying maximum wheel braking. |
| C)
Immediately after ground contact. |
| 215. |
J01 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| How may
a pilot determine if a LORAN-C receiver is authorized for IFR operations? |
| A) An
airframe logbook entry that the LORAN-C receiver has been checked within the
previous 30-calendar days. |
| B)
Consult the Airplane Flight Manual Supplement. |
| C) A
placard stating, 'LORAN-C APPROVED FOR IFR EN ROUTE, TERMINAL AND APPROACH
SEGMENTS.' |
| 216. |
W06 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Minimum
specific fuel consumption of the turboprop engine is normally available in
which altitude range? |
| A)
25,000 feet to the tropopause. |
| B)
10,000 feet to 25,000 feet. |
| C) The
tropopause to 45,000 feet. |
| 217. |
L57 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| During
an en route descent in a fixed-thrust and fixed-pitch attitude
configuration, both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system
become completely blocked by ice. What airspeed indication can be expected? |
| A)
Increase in indicated airspeed. |
| B)
Indicated airspeed remains at the value prior to icing. |
| C)
Decrease in indicated airspeed. |
| 218. |
T45 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which of
the following is considered a primary flight control? |
| A)
Elevator. |
| B)
Dorsal fin. |
| C)
Slats. |
| 219. |
H754 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What
type frequency vibration is associated with the main rotor system? |
| A)
Medium frequency. |
| B) High
frequency. |
| C) Low
frequency. |
| 220. |
H754 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What
type frequency vibration is associated with a defective transmission? |
| A)
Medium frequency. |
| B) Low
frequency. |
| C) High
frequency. |
| 221. |
T45 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| When are
inboard ailerons normally used? |
| A)
High-speed flight only. |
| B)
Low-speed flight only. |
| C)
Low-speed and high-speed flight. |
| 222. |
T45 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What is
a purpose of flight spoilers? |
| A)
Increase the camber of the wing. |
| B)
Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. |
| C)
Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. |
| 223. |
T34 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which is
a purpose of wing-mounted vortex generators? |
| A)
Reduce the drag caused by supersonic flow over portions of the wing. |
| B) Break
the airflow over the wing so the stall will progress from the root out to
the tip of the wing. |
| C)
Increase the onset of drag divergence and aid in aileron effectiveness at
high speed. |
| 224. |
T45 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What is
the purpose of an elevator trim tab? |
| A)
Modify the downward tail load for various airspeeds in flight eliminating
flight-control pressures. |
| B)
Adjust the speed tail load for different airspeeds in flight allowing
neutral control forces. |
| C)
Provide horizontal balance as airspeed is increased to allow hands-off
flight. |
| 225. |
H308 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What is
the reason for variations in geometric pitch along a propeller or rotor
blade? |
| A) It
permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in
cruising flight. |
| B) It
permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in
cruising flight. |
| C) It
prevents the portion of the blade near the hub or root from stalling during
cruising flight. |
| 226. |
H701 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which
type rotor system is more susceptible to ground resonance? |
| A) Rigid
rotor system. |
| B) Fully
articulated rotor system. |
| C)
Semi-rigid rotor system. |
| 227. |
T45 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which is
a purpose of ground spoilers? |
| A) Aid
in rolling an airplane into a turn. |
| B)
Increase the rate of descent without gaining airspeed. |
| C)
Reduce the wings' lift upon landing. |
| 228. |
J26 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| When
setting the altimeter, pilots should disregard |
| A)
corrections for instrument error. |
| B)
corrections for static pressure systems. |
| C)
effects of nonstandard atmospheric temperatures and pressures. |
| 229. |
M08 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Freezing
Point Depressant (FPD) fluids used for deicing |
| A) on
the ground, cause no performance degradation during takeoff. |
| B)
provide ice protection during flight. |
| C) are
intended to provide ice protection on the ground only. |
| 230. |
J03 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Identify
touchdown zone lighting (TDZL). |
| A) Two
rows of transverse light bars disposed symmetrically about the runway
centerline. |
| B)
Alternate white and green centerline lights extending from 75 feet from the
threshold through the touchdown zone. |
| C) Flush
centerline lights spaced at 50-foot intervals extending through the
touchdown zone. |
| 231. |
V14 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What
effect, if any, will landing at a higher-than-recommended touchdown speed
have on hydroplaning? |
| A)
Increases hydroplaning potential regardless of braking. |
| B) No
effect on hydroplaning, but increases landing roll. |
| C)
Reduces hydroplaning potential if heavy braking is applied. |
| 232. |
J13 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| A Land
and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) clearance, that the pilot accepts: |
| A) does
not preclude a rejected landing. |
| B)
precludes a rejected landing. |
| C) must
be adhered to. |
| 233. |
T55 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which of
the following will decrease the holding time during anti-icing using a
two-step process? |
| A) Apply
heated Type 2 fluid. |
| B)
Increase the viscosity of Type 1 fluid. |
| C)
Decrease the water content. |
| 234. |
J33 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| An ATC
'instruction' |
| A) is
the same as an ATC 'clearance.' |
| B) must
be 'read back' in full to the controller and confirmed before becoming
effective. |
| C) is a
directive issued by ATC for the purpose of requiring a pilot to take a
specific action. |
| 235. |
J13 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What is
a helicopter pilot's responsibility when cleared to 'air taxi' on the
airport? |
| A) Taxi
direct to destination as quickly as possible. |
| B) Taxi
below 100 feet AGL avoiding other aircraft and personnel. |
| C) Taxi
at hover altitude using taxiways. |
| 236. |
J05 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| When
instructed by ATC to 'Hold short of a runway (ILS critical area, etc.),' the
pilot should stop |
| A) so
the flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line. |
| B) so
that no part of the aircraft extends beyond the hold line. |
| C) with
the nose gear on the hold line. |
| 237. |
J03 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figure 131.) What is the runway distance remaining at 'C' for
a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? |
| A) 1,000
feet. |
| B) 1,800
feet. |
| C) 1,500
feet. |
| 238. |
J27 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which
flight conditions of a large jet airplane create the most severe flight
hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength? |
| A)
Heavy, fast, gear and flaps down. |
| B)
Heavy, slow, gear and flaps down. |
| C)
Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up. |
| 239. |
J27 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Wingtip
vortices created by large aircraft tend to |
| A) sink
below the aircraft generating the turbulence. |
| B)
accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff
roll began. |
| C) rise
from the surface to traffic pattern altitude. |
| 240. |
J03 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which
color on a tri-color VASI is a 'low' indication? |
| A)
Green. |
| B)
Amber. |
| C) Red. |
| 241. |
J31 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What is
the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body? |
| A)
Alcohol has an adverse effect, especially as altitude increases. |
| B)
Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee. |
| C) Small
amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decision-making
abilities. |
| 242. |
J31 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Sudden
penetration of fog can create the illusion of |
| A)
leveling off. |
| B)
pitching up. |
| C)
pitching down. |
| 243. |
J31 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| The
illusion of being in a noseup attitude which may occur during a rapid
acceleration takeoff is known as |
| A)
somatogravic illusion. |
| B)
autokinesis. |
| C)
inversion illusion. |
| 244. |
J31 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which is
a common symptom of hyperventilation? |
| A)
Increased vision keenness. |
| B)
Decreased breathing rate. |
| C)
Tingling of the hands, legs, and feet. |
| 245. |
J31 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What is
a symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning? |
| A)
Rapid, shallow breathing. |
| B)
Dizziness. |
| C) Pain
and cramping of the hands and feet. |
| 246. |
J01 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What
aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS middle marker? |
| A)
Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. |
| B)
Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second. |
| C)
Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. |
| 247. |
J01 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What
does operational flexibility of the Microwave Landing System (MLS) include? |
| A) An
azimuth of 40° in width providing obstacle clearance within 22 NM of the
airport. |
| B)
Curved and segmented approaches collocated with a fixed glidepath angle. |
| C)
Selectable glidepath angles and boundaries providing obstruction clearance
in the terminal area. |
| 248. |
J17 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figure 123.) You receive this ATC clearance: |
|
'...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL...' |
| What is
the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? |
| A)
Direct only. |
| B)
Parallel only. |
| C)
Teardrop only. |
| 249. |
J16 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What
minimum information does an abbreviated departure clearance 'cleared as
filed' include? |
| A)
Clearance limit, en route altitude, and SID, if appropriate. |
| B)
Destination airport, en route altitude, and SID, if appropriate. |
| C)
Clearance limit and en route altitude. |
| 250. |
J17 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| When
using a flight director system, what rate of turn or bank angle should a
pilot observe during turns in a holding pattern? |
| A) 3°
per second or 25° bank, whichever is less. |
| B)
1-1/2° per second or 25° bank, whichever is less. |
| C) 3°
per second or 30° bank, whichever is less. |
| 251. |
H837 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 136 and 138.) Which displacement from the localizer
centerline and glide slope at the 1,300-foot point from the runway is
indicated? |
| A) 28
feet above the glide slope and approximately 250 feet to the left of the
runway centerline. |
| B) 21
feet below the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the right of the
runway centerline. |
| C) 21
feet above the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the left of the
runway centerline. |
| 252. |
J01 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| How does
the SDF differ from an ILS LOC? |
| A) SDF -
15° usable off course indications, ILS - 35°. |
| B) SDF -
6° or 12° wide, ILS - 3° to 6°. |
| C) SDF -
offset from runway plus 3°, ILS - aligned with runway. |
| 253. |
H837 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 137 and 138.) Which displacement from the localizer
and glide slope at the outer marker is indicated? |
| A) 1,550
feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 210 feet above the glide
slope. |
| B) 775
feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 420 feet below the glide
slope. |
| C) 1,550
feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 210 feet below the glide
slope. |
| 254. |
J41 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figure 112.) What action should the pilot take if
communications were lost during the Cugar Four Arrival, after turning on the
305 radial of IAH? |
| A)
Proceed direct to IAH VORTAC, then outbound on the IAH R-125 for a procedure
turn for final approach. |
| B)
Proceed direct to IAH VORTAC, then to either IAF on the IAH 10 DME Arc to
final approach. |
| C) From
BANTY INT, proceed to the IAF on the IAH R-290, then continue on the IAH 10
DME Arc to final approach. |
| 255. |
J42 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 106 and 107.) If the glide slope indication is lost
upon passing HUNDA INT on the ILS RWY 25L approach at LAX, what action
should the pilot take? |
| A)
Continue to the MAP, and execute the missed approach as indicated. |
| B)
Continue the approach as an LOC, and add 100 feet to the DH. |
| C)
Immediately start the missed approach direct to INISH INT. |
| 256. |
J17 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figure 124.) A pilot receives this ATC clearance: |
|
'...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL...' |
| What is
the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? |
| A)
Teardrop only. |
| B)
Direct only. |
| C)
Parallel only. |
| 257. |
H831 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 142 and 143.) To which aircraft position does HSI
presentation 'D' correspond? |
| A) 4. |
| B) 17. |
| C) 15. |
| 258. |
J42 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figure 122.) What is the approximate rate of descent required
(for planning purposes) to maintain the electronic glide slope at 120 KIAS
with a reported headwind component of 15 knots? |
| A) 635
ft/min. |
| B) 650
ft/min. |
| C) 555
ft/min. |
| 259. |
J17 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What
action should a pilot take if asked by ARTCC to 'VERIFY 9,000' and the
flight is actually maintaining 8,000? |
| A)
Immediately climb to 9,000. |
| B)
Report maintaining 8,000. |
| C)
Report climbing to 9,000. |
| 260. |
J17 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Civil
aircraft holding at an altitude of 14,000 feet at a military or joint
civil/military use airport should expect to operate at which holding pattern
airspeed? |
| A) 250
knots. |
| B) 230
knots. |
| C) 260
knots. |
| 261. |
J34 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 1, legends 43 and 43A and appendix 2, figure 103.) The RWYs at
LAX are closed and expected to remain closed for 2 hours when N91JB arrives.
N91JB requests 4,000 feet, Tower Enroute Control (TEC) with radar vectors to
BUR. What altitude can N91JB expect based upon the type aircraft? |
| A) 4,000
feet. |
| B) 6,000
feet. |
| C) 5,000
feet. |
| 262. |
J42 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 202 and 206.) PTL 55 received the following clearance
from SFO Approach Control. PTL 55 is cleared ILS RWY 19L at SFO, sidestep to
RWY 19R. 1.3 times the Vso speed, of PTL 55, is 165 knots. What is the
lowest minimum descent altitude (MDA) and the lowest visibility that PTL 55
may accomplish the sidestep? |
| A)
340-1. |
| B)
340-2. |
| C)
340-1-1/2. |
| 263. |
H833 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What DME
indications should a pilot observe when directly over a VORTAC site at
12,000 feet? |
| A) 0 DME
miles. |
| B) 2.3
DME miles. |
| C) 2 DME
miles. |
| 264. |
J18 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Under
what condition may a pilot file an IFR flight plan containing a special or
privately owned IAP? |
| A) Upon
signing a waiver of responsibility. |
| B) Upon
approval of the owner. |
| C) Upon
approval of ATC. |
| 265. |
X07 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 73, 74, and 75.) What is the maneuvering speed for
Operating Conditions L-5? |
| A) 137
knots. |
| B) 130
knots. |
| C) 124
knots. |
| 266. |
X07 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 81, 82, and 83.) What is the max takeoff EPR for
Operating Conditions G-1? |
| A)
Engines 1 and 3, 2.15; engine 2, 2.09. |
| B)
Engines 1 and 3, 2.22; engine 2, 2.16. |
| C)
Engines 1 and 3, 2.22; engine 2, 2.21. |
| 267. |
X07 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 81 and 83.) What is the STAB TRIM setting for
Operating Conditions G-5? |
| A) 3-1/4
ANU. |
| B) 2-1/2
ANU. |
| C) 2-3/4
ANU. |
| 268. |
T58 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figure 70.) How many minutes of dump time is required to
reduce fuel load to 16,000 pounds? |
| Initial weight |
175,500 lb |
|
|
|
|
| Zero fuel weight |
138,000 lb |
|
|
|
|
| A) 9
minutes. |
| B) 8
minutes. |
| C) 10
minutes. |
| 269. |
X09 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 68 and 69.) What are the recommended IAS and EPR
settings for holding under Operating Conditions O-5? |
| A) 219
knots and 1.28 EPR. |
| B) 218
knots and 1.27 EPR. |
| C) 214
knots and 1.26 EPR. |
| 270. |
X09 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 68 and 69.) What is the approximate fuel consumed
when holding under Operating Conditions O-1? |
| A) 1,950
pounds. |
| B) 1,625
pounds. |
| C) 2,440
pounds. |
| 271. |
X07 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 73, 74, and 75.) What is VREF for Operating
Conditions L-1? |
| A) 143
knots. |
| B) 145
knots. |
| C) 144
knots. |
| 272. |
W06 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 71 and 72.) What is the approximate level-off
pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions D-3? |
| A)
19,800 feet. |
| B)
22,200 feet. |
| C)
21,600 feet. |
| 273. |
X15 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 73 and 75.) What is the go-around EPR for Operating
Conditions L-5? |
| A) 2.00
EPR. |
| B) 2.05
EPR. |
| C) 2.04
EPR. |
| 274. |
X15 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figure 92.) What is the maximum charted indicated airspeed
while maintaining a 3° glide slope at a weight of 140,000 pounds? |
| A) 127
knots. |
| B) 156
knots. |
| C) 149
knots. |
| 275. |
X15 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figure 92.) What is the change of total drag for a
140,000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 30°, gear
down, to flaps 0°, gear up, at a constant airspeed of 160 knots? |
| A)
15,300 pounds. |
| B)
13,500 pounds. |
| C)
13,300 pounds. |
| 276. |
X09 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Maximum
range performance of a turbojet aircraft is obtained by which procedure as
aircraft weight reduces? |
| A)
Increasing speed or decreasing altitude. |
| B)
Increasing altitude or decreasing speed. |
| C)
Increasing speed or altitude. |
| 277. |
X09 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 84 and 85.) What is the approximate fuel consumed
when holding under Operating Conditions H-2? |
| A) 5,250
pounds. |
| B) 5,100
pounds. |
| C) 3,400
pounds. |
| 278. |
X09 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 86 and 87.) What are descent time and distance under
Operating Conditions S-1? |
| A) 24
minutes, 118 NAM. |
| B) 25
minutes, 118 NAM. |
| C) 26
minutes, 125 NAM. |
| 279. |
X07 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 81, 82, and 83.) What is the takeoff safety speed for
Operating Conditions G-1? |
| A) 122
knots. |
| B) 137
knots. |
| C) 139
knots. |
| 280. |
X15 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figure 89.) How many feet will remain after landing on a
6,000-foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 122,000 pounds gross
weight? |
| A) 2,200
feet. |
| B) 3,150
feet. |
| C) 2,750
feet. |
| 281. |
X09 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 84 and 85.) What is the approximate fuel consumed
when holding under Operating Conditions H-1? |
| A) 2,630
pounds. |
| B) 3,500
pounds. |
| C) 4,680
pounds. |
| 282. |
X07 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 45, 46, and 47.) What is the STAB TRIM setting for
Operating Conditions A-3? |
| A) 22
percent MAC. |
| B) 20
percent MAC. |
| C) 18
percent MAC. |
| 283. |
X09 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 48, 49, and 50.) What is the ground distance covered
during en route climb for Operating Conditions W-4? |
| A) 61.4
NM. |
| B) 60.3
NM. |
| C) 58.4
NM. |
| 284. |
X09 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 48, 49, and 50.) What is the aircraft weight at the
top of climb for Operating Conditions W-1? |
| A)
81,550 pounds. |
| B)
81,600 pounds. |
| C)
81,400 pounds. |
| 285. |
X09 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 51 and 52.) What is the total time from starting to
the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions L-1? |
| A) 44
minutes. |
| B) 30
minutes. |
| C) 29
minutes. |
| 286. |
X15 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 51 and 52.) What is the approximate landing weight
for Operating Conditions L-1? |
| A)
81,500 pounds. |
| B)
79,000 pounds. |
| C)
80,600 pounds. |
| 287. |
X07 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 53, 54, and 55.) What is the takeoff EPR for
Operating Conditions R-2? |
| A) 2.18. |
| B) 2.19. |
| C) 2.16. |
| 288. |
H721 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figure 39.) What is the takeoff distance over a 50-foot
obstacle? |
| Pressure altitude |
|
-1,000 ft |
|
|
|
| Temperature (OAT) |
|
+25 °C |
|
|
|
| Gross weight |
|
14,000 lb |
|
|
|
| A) 1,000
feet. |
| B) 950
feet. |
| C) 900
feet. |
| 289. |
H721 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figure 40.) What is the climb performance with both engines
operating? |
| Pressure altitude |
|
9,500 ft |
|
|
|
| Temperature (OAT) |
|
-5 °C |
|
|
|
| Heater |
|
|
ON |
|
|
| A) 600
ft/min. |
| B) 925
ft/min. |
| C) 335
ft/min. |
| 290. |
H721 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figure 41.) Given the following, what is the single-engine
climb or descent performance? |
| Pressure altitude |
|
3,000 ft |
|
|
|
| Temperature (OAT) |
|
+35 °C |
|
|
|
| A) 150
ft/min descent. |
| B) 100
ft/min descent. |
| C) 350
ft/min climb. |
| 291. |
X07 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 45, 46, and 47.) What is the STAB TRIM setting for
Operating Conditions A-1? |
| A) 36
percent MAC. |
| B) 29
percent MAC. |
| C) 32
percent MAC. |
| 292. |
H720 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figure 43.) What is the single-engine landing distance over a
50-foot obstacle? |
| Gross weight |
|
12,000 lb |
|
|
|
| Pressure altitude |
|
3,500 ft |
|
|
|
| Temperature (OAT) |
|
+30 °C |
|
|
|
| A) 1,000
feet. |
| B) 850
feet. |
| C) 900
feet. |
| 293. |
X07 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 45, 46, and 47.) What are V1 and VR speeds for
Operating Conditions A-1? |
| A) V1
120.5 knots; VR 123.5 knots. |
| B) V1
123.1 knots; VR 125.2 knots. |
| C) V1
122.3 knots; VR 124.1 knots. |
| 294. |
H718 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figure 42.) Given the following, what is the airspeed limit (VNE)? |
| Gross weight |
|
16,500 lb |
|
|
|
| Pressure altitude |
|
5,000 ft |
|
|
|
| Temperature (OAT) |
|
-15 °C |
|
|
|
| A) 133
KIAS. |
| B) 128
KIAS. |
| C) 126
KIAS. |
| 295. |
X09 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip time for Operating
Conditions X-5? |
| A) 2
hours 59 minutes. |
| B) 2
hours 55 minutes. |
| C) 3
hours 10 minutes. |
| 296. |
X09 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip fuel for Operating
Conditions X-1? |
| A)
24,000 pounds. |
| B)
25,000 pounds. |
| C)
26,000 pounds. |
| 297. |
X09 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 63 and 64.) What is the turbulent air penetration N1
power setting for Operating Conditions Q-1? |
| A) 84.0
percent. |
| B) 82.4
percent. |
| C) 84.8
percent. |
| 298. |
X09 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 59 and 60.) What is the max continuous EPR for
Operating Conditions T-5? |
| A) 2.00. |
| B) 1.96. |
| C) 2.04. |
| 299. |
X09 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 66 and 67.) What is the trip time corrected for wind
under Operating Conditions Z-1? |
| A) 54.7
minutes. |
| B) 58.1
minutes. |
| C) 51.9
minutes. |
| 300. |
X09 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 66 and 67.) What is the trip time corrected for wind
under Operating Conditions Z-5? |
| A) 1
hour 11 minutes. |
| B) 62
minutes. |
| C) 56
minutes. |
| 301. |
X09 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 66 and 67.) What is the estimated fuel consumption
for Operating Conditions Z-1? |
| A) 5,970
pounds. |
| B) 5,230
pounds. |
| C) 5,550
pounds. |
| 302. |
X09 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 68 and 69.) What are the recommended IAS and EPR
settings for holding under Operating Conditions O-1? |
| A) 217
knots and 1.81 EPR. |
| B) 221
knots and 1.83 EPR. |
| C) 223
knots and 2.01 EPR. |
| 303. |
X07 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 53, 54, and 55.) What are V1, VR, and V2 speeds for
Operating Conditions R-3? |
| A) 136,
138, and 143 knots. |
| B) 138,
138, and 142 knots. |
| C) 143,
143, and 147 knots. |
| 304. |
X07 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 53 and 55.) What is the STAB TRIM setting for
Operating Conditions R-5? |
| A) 7-1/2
ANU. |
| B) 6-3/4
ANU. |
| C) 8 ANU. |
| 305. |
X09 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 56, 57, and 58.) What is the ground distance covered
during en route climb for Operating Conditions V-5? |
| A) 70
NM. |
| B) 61
NM. |
| C) 47
NM. |
| 306. |
X09 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 56, 57, and 58.) How much fuel is burned during en
route climb for Operating Conditions V-2? |
| A) 2,600
pounds. |
| B) 2,250
pounds. |
| C) 2,400
pounds. |
| 307. |
X09 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 59 and 60.) What is the max cruise EPR for Operating
Conditions T-3? |
| A) 1.90. |
| B) 2.02. |
| C) 2.11. |
| 308. |
X09 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 59 and 60.) What is the max climb EPR for Operating
Conditions T-1? |
| A) 2.04. |
| B) 1.82. |
| C) 1.96. |
| 309. |
X09 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 56, 57, and 58.) What is the aircraft weight at the
top of climb for Operating Conditions V-3? |
| A)
82,500 pounds. |
| B)
82,200 pounds. |
| C)
82,100 pounds. |
| 310. |
H317 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 19 and 20.) Which statement is true regarding
performance with one engine inoperative for Operating Conditions BE-27? |
| A)
Service ceiling is below the MEA. |
| B) Bleed
air OFF improves service ceiling by 3,000 feet. |
| C) Climb
rate at the MEA is more than 50 ft/min. |
| 311. |
H721 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figure 39.) What is the takeoff distance over a 50-foot
obstacle? |
| Pressure altitude |
|
3,500 ft |
|
|
|
| Temperature (OAT) |
|
+20 °C |
|
|
|
| Gross weight |
|
15,000 lb |
|
|
|
| A) 1,100
feet. |
| B) 1,070
feet. |
| C) 1,020
feet. |
| 312. |
H317 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 15 and 18.) What are the time, fuel, and distance
from the start of climb to cruise altitude for Operating Conditions BE-24? |
| A) 12.0
minutes; 220 pounds; 45 NM. |
| B) 10.0
minutes; 170 pounds; 30 NM. |
| C) 9.0
minutes; 185 pounds; 38 NM. |
| 313. |
H718 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| How does
VNE speed vary with altitude? |
| A)
Remains the same at all altitudes. |
| B)
Varies directly with altitude. |
| C)
Varies inversely with altitude. |
| 314. |
H593 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What
effect, if any, does altitude have on VMC for an airplane with
unsupercharged engines? |
| A) None. |
| B)
Decreases with altitude. |
| C)
Increases with altitude. |
| 315. |
H721 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figure 37.) What is the maximum gross weight for hovering in
ground effect at 3,000 feet pressure altitude and +25 °C? |
| A)
16,600 pounds. |
| B)
17,300 pounds. |
| C)
14,700 pounds. |
| 316. |
H317 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figure 12.) Given the following conditions, what is the
minimum torque for takeoff? |
| Pressure altitude |
|
3,500 ft |
|
|
|
| Temperature (OAT) |
|
+43 °C |
|
|
|
| Ice vanes |
|
|
Retracted |
|
|
| A) 3,000
foot-pound. |
| B) 3,110
foot-pound. |
| C) 3,050
foot-pound. |
| 317. |
H703 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Why are
the rotor blades more efficient when operating in ground effect? |
| A)
Induced drag is reduced. |
| B)
Downwash velocity is accelerated. |
| C)
Induced angle of attack is increased. |
| 318. |
H317 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figure 14.) Given the following conditions, what is the
accelerate-stop field length? |
| Pressure altitude |
|
6,000 ft |
|
|
|
| Temperature (OAT) |
|
+10 °C |
|
|
|
| Weight |
|
|
16,600 lb |
|
|
| Wind component |
|
15 kts HW |
|
|
|
| Ice vanes |
|
|
Retracted |
|
|
| A) 4,950
feet. |
| B) 5,300
feet. |
| C) 4,800
feet. |
| 319. |
H317 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 15, 16, and 17.) What is the two-engine rate of climb
after takeoff in climb configuration for Operating Conditions BE-21? |
| A) 2,450
ft/min. |
| B) 1,350
ft/min. |
| C) 2,300
ft/min. |
| 320. |
H720 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figure 36.) Given the following conditions, what is the
maximum allowable measured gas temperature (MGT) during the power assurance
check? |
| Engine torque |
57 percent |
|
|
|
|
| Pressure altitude |
2,500 ft |
|
|
|
|
| Temperature (OAT) |
+5 °C |
|
|
|
|
| A) 815
°C. |
| B) 810
°C. |
| C) 828
°C. |
| 321. |
W17 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Within
what Mach range does transonic flight regimes usually occur? |
| A) 1.20
to 2.50 Mach. |
| B) .50
to .75 Mach. |
| C) .75
to 1.20 Mach. |
| 322. |
H317 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figure 26.) What are the time and distance to descend from
18,000 feet to 2,500 feet? |
| A) 10.0
minutes, 36 NM. |
| B) 9.8
minutes, 33 NM. |
| C) 10.3
minutes, 39 NM. |
| 323. |
H314 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 21, 22, 23, 24, and 25.) What is the en route time of
the cruise leg for Operating Conditions BE-34? |
| A) 1
hour 6 minutes. |
| B) 1
hour 11 minutes. |
| C) 1
hour 3 minutes. |
| 324. |
H317 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 27 and 28.) What is the landing distance over a
50-foot obstacle for Operating Conditions B-36? |
| A) 1,625
feet. |
| B) 1,900
feet. |
| C) 950
feet. |
| 325. |
H314 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 21, 22, 23, 24, and 25.) What is the en route time of
the cruise leg for Operating Conditions BE-35? |
| A) 1
hour 8 minutes. |
| B) 1
hour 6 minutes. |
| C) 1
hour 10 minutes. |
| 326. |
H300 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What is
the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level
flight below that speed for maximum L/D? |
| A) Drag
increases because of increased parasite drag. |
| B) Drag
decreases because of lower induced drag. |
| C) Drag
increases because of increased induced drag. |
| 327. |
H703 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What
result does a level turn have on the total lift force and load factor? |
| A) Lift
force remains constant and the load factor increases. |
| B) Both
total lift force and load factor increase. |
| C) Lift
force increases and the load factor decreases. |
| 328. |
H615 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| In a
light, twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative, when is it
acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected
outside the reference lines? |
| A) When
practicing imminent stalls in a banked attitude. |
| B) While
maneuvering at minimum controllable airspeed to avoid overbanking. |
| C) When
operating at any airspeed greater than VMC. |
| 329. |
H702 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What is
the ratio between the total air load imposed on the rotor disc and the gross
weight of a helicopter in flight? |
| A) Load
factor. |
| B)
Aspect ratio. |
| C) Power
loading. |
| 330. |
H534 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What is
the relationship of the rate of turn with the radius of turn with a constant
angle of bank but increasing airspeed? |
| A) Rate
will decrease and radius will increase. |
| B) Rate
and radius will increase. |
| C) Rate
will increase and radius will decrease. |
| 331. |
H303 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| How can
turbulent air cause an increase in stalling speed of an airfoil? |
| A) A
decrease in angle of attack. |
| B) An
abrupt change in relative wind. |
| C)
Sudden decrease in load factor. |
| 332. |
H300 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What
will be the ratio between airspeed and lift if the angle of attack and other
factors remain constant and airspeed is doubled? Lift will be |
| A) four
times greater. |
| B) the
same. |
| C) two
times greater. |
| 333. |
W17 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What is
the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring symmetrically
near the wing root of a sweptwing aircraft? |
| A) A
high-speed stall and sudden pitchup. |
| B)
Severe porpoising. |
| C) A
severe moment or 'tuck under.' |
| 334. |
H308 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Identify
the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to move farther from its
original position after the controls have been neutralized. |
| A)
Negative static stability. |
| B)
Negative dynamic stability. |
| C)
Positive static stability. |
| 335. |
W16 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What is
the condition known as when gusts cause a sweptwing-type airplane to roll in
one direction while yawing in the other? |
| A)
Wingover. |
| B)
Porpoise. |
| C) Dutch
roll. |
| 336. |
H302 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What is
a characteristic of longitudinal instability? |
| A) Bank
oscillations becoming progressively greater. |
| B)
Aircraft constantly tries to pitch down. |
| C) Pitch
oscillations becoming progressively greater. |
| 337. |
H535 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| By
changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane's |
| A) lift,
gross weight, and drag. |
| B) lift
and airspeed, but not drag. |
| C) lift,
airspeed, and drag. |
| 338. |
J01 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What
documents the authorized operational level of LORAN-C? |
| A) An
entry in the aircraft maintenance logbook giving place, date, and signature
of authorizing official. |
| B) The
Airplane Flight Manual Supplement or FAA Form 337, Major Repair and
Alteration. |
| C) A
placard stating 'KIRAB-C APPROVED FOR IFR.' |
| 339. |
J15 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What is
one limitation when filing a random RNAV route on an IFR flight plan? |
| A) The
entire route must be within radar environment. |
| B) The
waypoints may only be defined by degree-distance fixes based on appropriate
navigational aids. |
| C) The
waypoints must be located within 200 NM of each other. |
| 340. |
J15 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| NOTAM (L)'s
are used to disseminate what type of information? |
| A) Time
critical information of a permanent nature that is not yet available in
normally published charts. |
| B) Taxi
closures, personnel and equipment near or crossing runways, airport lighting
aids that do not affect instrument approach criteria, and airport rotating
beacon outages. |
| C)
Conditions of facilities en route that may cause delays. |
| 341. |
J12 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| To
assure expeditious handling of a civilian air ambulance flight, the word
'LIFEGUARD' should be entered in which section of the flight plan? |
| A)
Aircraft type/special equipment block. |
| B)
Remarks block. |
| C)
Pilot's name and address block. |
| 342. |
J01 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which
class of NOTAM gives the latest information on LORAN-C chain or station
outages? |
| A) NOTAM
(L)'s under the identifier 'LORAN-C.' |
| B) Class
II NOTAM's published every 14 days. |
| C) NOTAM
(D)'s under the identifier 'LRN.' |
| 343. |
J15 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| How
should an off-airway direct flight be defined on an IFR flight plan? |
| A) The
initial fix, the true course, and the final fix. |
| B) The
initial fix, all radio fixes which the pilot wishes to be compulsory
reporting points, and the final fix. |
| C) All
radio fixes over which the flight will pass. |
| 344. |
W06 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 115, 116, 117, 118, and 118C.) What is the specific
range in nautical miles per 1,000 pounds of fuel from level-off to the ARLIN
Intersection using .78 Mach? |
| A) 48.8
NAM/1,000 pounds. |
| B) 48.1
NAM/1,000 pounds. |
| C) 48.0
NAM/1,000 pounds. |
| 345. |
W06 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 119, 120, 121, and 122.) What is the specific range
in nautical air miles per 1,000 pounds of fuel from level-off to start of
descent using .78 Mach? |
| A) 55.9
NAM/1000. |
| B) 52.5
NAM/1000. |
| C) 48.9
NAM/1000. |
| 346. |
H848 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 179, 180A, 181, 182, and 182A.) The time enroute from
Newport News/Williamsburg Intl to Philadelphia Intl via the flight plan of
EAB 90 is |
| A) 1
hour 29 minutes. |
| B) 1
hour 27 minutes. |
| C) 1
hour 31 minutes. |
| 347. |
H848 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 119, 120, 121, and 122.) What is the total fuel
required for the flight from BUF to ORD using .80 Mach? |
| A)
19,388 pounds. |
| B)
21,644 pounds. |
| C)
22,094 pounds. |
| 348. |
J15 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figure 202.) In block 3 of the flight plan, there is the
following entry: B/B747/R. The '/R' will change to '/I' in February 1999.
What will the '/I' indicate? |
| A) That
the flight plan contains an RNAV route. |
| B) RNAV/Transponder/altitude
encoding capability. |
| C) RNAV/TCAS/Transponder/altitude
encoding capability. |
| 349. |
X21 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to instructions 1 through 5 for Part 1.) What is the preflight groundspeed
for the leg from 072°30' W to 070°00' W? |
| A) 230
knots. |
| B) 237
knots. |
| C) 226
knots. |
| 350. |
X21 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to instructions 1 through 5 for Part 1.) What is the preflight distance from
Craig VORTAC to the Bermuda VORTAC? |
| A) 879
NM. |
| B) 852
NM. |
| C) 860
NM. |
| 351. |
X21 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to instructions 1 through 5 for Part 2.) After departing over the Craig
VORTAC, what is the ETA at 30°42' N - 080°00' W? |
| A)
2156Z. |
| B)
2201Z. |
| C)
2151Z. |
| 352. |
H808 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 113 and 114.) What TAS would be required to arrive at
POM VORTAC 1 hour after passing DAG VORTAC? |
| A) 102
knots. |
| B) 108
knots. |
| C) 105
knots. |
| 353. |
H848 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 103, 104, 105, and 106.) Estimate the total fuel
required to be on the aircraft, prior to taxi at Tucson Intl. |
| A) 2,223
pounds. |
| B) 2,447
pounds. |
| C) 2,327
pounds. |
| 354. |
H339 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| On which
chart does a straight line represent a rhumb line? |
| A)
Stereographic. |
| B)
Mercator. |
| C)
Lambert Conformal. |
| 355. |
H345 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Where
should the course be measured when plotting on a Lambert Conformal Chart? |
| A)
Mid-longitude. |
| B)
Mid-latitude. |
| C) Any
longitude. |
| 356. |
H848 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 197, 199, and 200.) What is the ETE for the IFR
helicopter flight from Eagle County Regional to Salt Lake City Intl? |
| A) 1
hour 33 minutes. |
| B) 1
hour 37 minutes. |
| C) 1
hour 35 minutes. |
| 357. |
X21 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| How is
Doppler groundspeed determined? |
| A) By
comparing the frequency from the forward beam with the frequency from the
aft beam. |
| B) By
the automatic astrotracker. |
| C) By
the unit's accelerometer component. |
| 358. |
H340 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| An
ISOGRIV is defined correctly by which of the following responses? |
| Line of |
| A) equal
grivation. |
| B)
positive grivation. |
| C) zero
grivation. |
| 359. |
X21 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| With a
relative bearing of 120°, a compass heading of 212°, and a local variation
of 9° west, what is the true bearing TO the NDB? |
| FOR
(MAGNETIC)N3060E120150 |
| STEER
(COMPASS)0285786117148 |
| FOR
(MAGNETIC)S210240W300330 |
| STEER
(COMPASS)180212243274303332 |
| A) 321°. |
| B) 141°. |
| C) 159°. |
| 360. |
X21 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Track is
defined as the |
| A)
horizontal component of the actual path of an aircraft over the ground. |
| B)
horizontal component of the intended path of the aircraft comprising both
direction and magnitude. |
| C)
intended horizontal direction of travel of aircraft over the ground. |
| 361. |
H830 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figure 125.) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as
indicated by illustration 4? |
| A) 285°. |
| B) 235°. |
| C) 055°. |
| 362. |
X21 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to instructions 1 through 5 for Part 1.) What is the magnetic heading shown
on the preflight log for the leg from 077°30' W to 075°00' W? |
| A) 093°. |
| B) 087°. |
| C) 082°. |
| 363. |
X21 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to instructions 1 through 5 for Part 2.) What is the position of the 0000Z
fix? |
| A)
32°02' N - 069°56' W. |
| B)
31°45' N - 070°05' W. |
| C)
31°56' N - 070°00' W. |
| 364. |
J42 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 193, 193A,194, 195, 195A, 196,and 196A.) While being
radar vectored for the ILS/DME RWY 35R, Denver Approach Control tells PIL 10
to contact the tower, without giving the frequency. What frequency should
PIL 10 use for tower? |
| A)
121.85. |
| B)
124.3. |
| C)
132.35. |
| 365. |
H830 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figure 125.) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is
located on the 055° radial of the station and heading away from the station? |
| A) 2. |
| B) 1. |
| C) 3. |
| 366. |
X21 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Time of
transit refers to |
| A) when
the Sun passes overhead in the sky. |
| B) the
time when a body passes the observer's meridian. |
| C) the
altitude of a body above the observer's celestial horizon. |
| 367. |
X21 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| A 1-hour
time zone is equal to how many degrees or minutes of longitude on the
Earth's surface? |
| A) 15°. |
| B) 15
minutes. |
| C) 1°. |
| 368. |
X21 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| How many
degrees of longitude does the mean Sun travel in 3 hours 20 minutes? |
| A) 45°. |
| B) 55°. |
| C) 50°. |
| 369. |
J42 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 111 and 112.) Which approach lighting is available
for Rwy 32R? |
| A) HIRL. |
| B) TDZ
and CL. |
| C) MALSR
with RAIL. |
| 370. |
J42 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figure 118A.) The touchdown zone elevation of the LOC BC RWY
26L approach at Phoenix Sky Harbor Intl is |
| A) 1,131
feet. |
| B) 1,130
feet. |
| C) 1,132
feet. |
| 371. |
J01 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| A GPS
missed approach requires that the pilot take action to sequence the receiver |
| A) over
the MAWP. |
| B) after
the MAWP. |
| C) just
prior to the MAWP. |
| 372. |
J42 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figure 161A.) The La Guardia weather goes below minimums and
New York Approach Control issues a clearance to N711JB, via radar vectors,
to ASALT Intersection. What is the lowest altitude that Approach Control may
clear N711JB to cross ASALT Intersection? |
| A) 2,500
feet. |
| B) 3,000
feet. |
| C) 2,000
feet. |
| 373. |
J36 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figure 121.) On the airway J220 (BUF R-158) SE of Buffalo,
the MAA is 39,000 feet. What is the MAA on J547 between BUF and PMM? |
| A)
60,000 feet. |
| B)
45,000 feet. |
| C)
43,000 feet. |
| 374. |
J01 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which
indication may be received when a VOR is undergoing maintenance and is
considered unreliable? |
| A) An
automatic voice recording stating the VOR is out-of-service for maintenance. |
| B)
Identifier is preceded by 'M' and an intermittent 'OFF' flag might appear. |
| C) Coded
identification T-E-S-T. |
| 375. |
H831 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| When is
the course deviation indicator (CDI) considered to have a full-scale
deflection? |
| A) When
the CDI deflects from full-scale left to full-scale right, or vice versa. |
| B) When
the CDI deflects from half-scale left to half-scale right, or vice versa. |
| C) When
the CDI deflects from the center of the scale to full-scale left or right. |
| 376. |
J42 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figure 133 and appendix 1, legend 22.) Which navigation
frequency must be used for the LORAN RNAV RWY 15 to the Burlington Intl
Airport? |
| A)
MWX9960. |
| B)
W=10.0; X=09.8. |
| C)
BTV9960. |
| 377. |
J01 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| If
Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available when
setting up for GPS approach, the pilot should |
| A)
continue to the MAP and hold until the satellites are recaptured. |
| B)
proceed as cleared to the IAF and hold until satellite reception is
satisfactory. |
| C)
select another type of approach using another type of navigation aid. |
| 378. |
J35 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figure 114.) What is the minimum crossing altitude at POM
VORTAC when southwest bound on V210? |
| A) 5,300
feet. |
| B)
10,300 feet. |
| C)
10,700 feet. |
| 379. |
H345 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What
causes refraction error in a sextant? |
| A)
Improper alignment of the optical system in the sextant. |
| B)
Bending of the light as it passes through the atmosphere. |
| C)
Poorly aligned sextant mount in the aircraft. |
| 380. |
H345 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| The
correction used during a Polaris observation is |
| A)
motion of the body. |
| B) index
error. |
| C) 'Q'
correction. |
| 381. |
H345 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| To
determine latitude by an observation of Polaris, it is necessary to adjust
the HO altitude |
| A) for
erratic orbit of Polaris. |
| B) to
the altitude of the poles. |
| C) for
change in LHA of Aries. |
| 382. |
H345 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| The star
at the end of the handle of the Little Dipper (URSA Minor) is |
| A) Dubhe. |
| B)
Polaris. |
| C)
Kochab. |
| 383. |
H345 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| A line
extending southward from the western side of Pegasus leads to the star, |
| A)
Achernar. |
| B)
Fomalhaut. |
| C)
Diphda. |
| 384. |
H345 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| How can
latitude be determined from a celestial observation of Polaris? |
| A) By
using the formula R=ROXf. |
| B) By
applying a 'Q' correction to the HO (observed altitude). |
| C) By
applying a Coriolis correction to the HO (observed altitude). |
| 385. |
H345 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Noonday
fixes (local apparent noon) can best be obtained at |
| A)
higher latitudes. |
| B) lower
latitudes. |
| C)
middle latitudes. |
| 386. |
H345 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What
measurement does the intercept method provide when determining an LOP for a
celestial fix? |
| A) The
distance in nautical miles between the position and the celestial body's
subpoint. |
| B)
Nautical miles between the actual circle of equal altitude and that of the
assumed position. |
| C)
Nautical miles between the position and the celestial body's nadir. |
| 387. |
H345 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Why is
the intercept method used to plot celestial fixes? |
| A) It
eliminates the need to correct for precision. |
| B) The
subpoint of most bodies would be too far to plot on most aeronautical
charts. |
| C) It
provides a rapid means of computing the observations. |
| 388. |
H345 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| When
observing the Moon HS, which correction is always subtracted? |
| A)
Parallax. |
| B)
Refraction. |
| C)
Index. |
| 389. |
H345 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which of
the listed planets is most often used for a celestial observation? |
| A)
Uranus. |
| B)
Venus. |
| C)
Mercury. |
| 390. |
H345 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| How is
the correction for a refraction error applied to the HS (height sighted)? |
| A)
Subtracted for all celestial observations. |
| B)
Subtracted for Moon observations only. |
| C) Added
for Sun, Moon, and the planets. |
| 391. |
H345 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| The star
at the tail of Scorpius (the scorpion) is |
| A)
Antares. |
| B)
Shaula. |
| C) Nunki. |
| 392. |
H345 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| A
parallax correction is applied to a celestial observation of the |
| A) Sun. |
| B) Moon. |
| C)
planets. |
| 393. |
H345 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| When is
parallax error the greatest? |
| A) When
the altitude of the observer aircraft is high. |
| B) When
the HS is greatest (i.e., close to 90). |
| C) When
the body being observed is on the horizon. |
| 394. |
H345 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Nutation
is defined as |
| A)
nodding or wobbling of the Earth on its axis. |
| B) error
caused by mechanical faults in the sextant. |
| C)
bending of the light as it passes through the atmosphere. |
| 395. |
H345 |
ATP |
|
|
|
|
Precession and nutation corrections are only applied to |
| A) the
Sun. |
| B) the
Moon. |
| C)
select stars. |
| 396. |
H345 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| How are
select stars that are best suited for fixing purposes identified in the H.O.
Pub. No. 249, Sight Reduction Tables? |
| A)
Marked by diamonds. |
| B) Name
printed in bold type. |
| C)
Marked by a number symbol. |
| 397. |
H345 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which
publication deals solely with solutions concerning selected stars? |
| A) H.O.
Pub. No. 249, Sight Reduction Tables, Volume II. |
| B) H.O.
Pub. No. 249, Sight Reduction Tables, Volume III. |
| C) H.O.
Pub. No. 249, Sight Reduction Tables, Volume I. |
| 398. |
J01 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Aircraft
navigating by GPS are considered, on the flight plan, to be |
| A) RNAV
equipped. |
| B) FMS/EFIS
equipped. |
| C)
Astrotracker equipped. |
| 399. |
H339 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which
features are associated with the Lambert Conformal Conic Projection? |
| A)
Meridians are straight lines, equally spaced. |
| B)
Straight lines cross meridians at constant angles. |
| C) A
straight line approximates a great circle. |
| 400. |
H339 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which
chart projection is most commonly used for aeronautical navigation? |
| A)
Lambert conformal. |
| B)
Mercator. |
| C)
Stereographic. |
| 401. |
H345 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| When
observing the Moon HS, which corrections are always additive? |
| A)
Parallax. |
| B)
Index. |
| C)
Refraction. |
| 402. |
H345 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What is
the name of the celestial counterpart for longitude? |
| A)
Declination. |
| B)
Diurnal circles. |
| C) Hour
circles. |
| 403. |
H345 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| The
first magnitude star approximately midway between Betelgeuse and the Pleides
is |
| A)
Elnath. |
| B)
Aldebaran. |
| C)
Pollux. |
| 404. |
H339 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| An air
position (AP) is defined as |
| A) the
location of an aircraft in relation to the air mass surrounding it. |
| B) a
point on the Earth established by keeping an accurate account of time,
groundspeed, and track since the last known position. |
| C) an
accurate position determined by electronic equipment. |
| 405. |
H345 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which
planet is most often used for celestial observations? |
| A)
Pluto. |
| B)
Uranus. |
| C) Mars. |
| 406. |
H339 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 4, figure 1.) The symbol represents |
| A) a
wind vector. |
| B) a
ground track. |
| C) an
air position. |
| 407. |
H339 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 4, figure 2.) The symbol represents |
| A) a DR
position. |
| B) a
fix. |
| C) an
air position. |
| 408. |
H345 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| How is
the first point of Aries defined? |
| A) Point
where the Sun appears to cross the celestial Equator from north to south. |
| B) Point
where the Sun crosses the observer's upper branch. |
| C) Point
where the Sun appears to cross the celestial Equator from south to north. |
| 409. |
H345 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Sidereal
time is defined as |
| A) when
the Sun passes from north to south declination across the equinoctial. |
| B) time
measured from the Greenwich Meridian to the observer's lower branch. |
| C) time
measured by reference to the upper branch of the first point of Aries. |
| 410. |
H345 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What is
the name of the point directly above the observer's position on the
celestial sphere? |
| A)
Nadir. |
| B)
Aries. |
| C)
Zenith. |
| 411. |
H339 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 4, figure 3.) The symbol represents |
| A) an
air position. |
| B) an
air vector. |
| C) a
wind vector. |
| 412. |
H339 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 4, figure 4.) The symbol represents |
| A) an
air vector. |
| B) a DR
position. |
| C) a
wind vector. |
| 413. |
H345 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| At what
location are none of the celestial bodies circumpolar? |
| A) 60°. |
| B) 30°. |
| C) The
Equator. |
| 414. |
H345 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| At what
location are all celestial bodies circumpolar? |
| A)
Either pole. |
| B) 60°. |
| C) 30°. |
| 415. |
H345 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| The
celestial reference lines that are counterparts of parallels of latitude are
called |
| A)
diurnal circles. |
| B)
declination circles. |
| C) hour
circles. |
| 416. |
J36 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figure 171.) The facility (Kankakee) that is located 9 miles
NE of Chicago Midway or 27 miles SSE of Northbrook (OBK) is a/an |
| A)
Aeronautical Radio Inc. (AIRINC) transmitter. |
| B)
Flight Service, Remote Communications Outlet. |
| C)
Automated Weather Observing System (AWOS-ASOS) with frequency. |
| 417. |
H345 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| From
which publication can the GHA of the Sun, Moon, planets, and Aries be
obtained? |
| A) H.O.
Pub. No. 249, Sight Reduction Tables. |
| B) H.O.
Pub. No. 216, Air Navigation. |
| C) Air
Almanac. |
| 418. |
M35 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| A
pretakeoff contamination check for snow, ice or frost is required by FAR
Part 135. This check is required to |
| A) be
completed within 5 minutes prior to beginning the takeoff. |
| B) be
made within 2 minutes of starting the takeoff roll. |
| C) see
that the aircraft is clean, therefore, a safe takeoff can be made during the
next 5 minutes. |
| 419. |
J34 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figure 104.) What effect on the takeoff run can be expected
on Rwy 11R at Tucson Intl? |
| A)
Takeoff length shortened to 6,986 feet by displaced threshold. |
| B)
Takeoff run will be lengthened by the 0.6 percent upslope of the runway. |
| C)
Takeoff run shortened by 0.6 percent runway slope to the SE. |
| 420. |
J03 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| A pilot
of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a
steeper-than-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in |
| A) a
hard landing. |
| B)
landing short of the runway threshold. |
| C)
increased landing rollout. |
| 421. |
J13 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What
special consideration is given for turbine-powered aircraft when 'gate hold'
procedures are in effect? |
| A) They
are expected to be ready for takeoff when they reach the runway or warmup
block. |
| B) They
are expected to be ready for takeoff prior to taxi and will receive takeoff
clearance prior to taxi. |
| C) They
are given preference for departure over other aircraft. |
| 422. |
J18 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What is
the difference between a visual and a contact approach? |
| A) A
visual approach is an IFR authorization while a contact approach is a VFR
authorization. |
| B) Both
are the same but classified according to the party initiating the approach. |
| C) A
visual approach is initiated by ATC while a contact approach is initiated by
the pilot. |
| 423. |
H744 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| How
should the pilot execute a pinnacle-type approach to a rooftop heliport in
conditions of high wind and turbulence? |
| A)
Steeper-than-normal approach, maintaining the desired angle of descent with
collective. |
| B)
Shallow approach, maintaining a constant line of descent with cyclic. |
| C)
Normal approach, maintaining a slower-than-normal rate of descent with
cyclic. |
| 424. |
J31 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What is
the maximum acceptable tolerance for penetrating a domestic ADIZ? |
| A) Plus
or minus 10 miles; plus or minus 10 minutes. |
| B) Plus
or minus 10 miles; plus or minus 5 minutes. |
| C) Plus
or minus 20 miles; plus or minus 5 minutes. |
| 425. |
V12 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which
'rule-of-thumb' may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for
a 3° glidepath? |
| A) 10
times groundspeed in knots. |
| B) 8
times groundspeed in knots. |
| C) 5
times groundspeed in knots. |
| 426. |
H748 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What
corrective action can a pilot take to recover from settling with power? |
| A)
Decrease forward speed and partially raise collective pitch. |
| B)
Increase forward speed and partially lower collective pitch. |
| C)
Increase forward speed and raise collective pitch. |
| 427. |
H709 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What
corrective action can a pilot take to prevent a retreating blade stall at
its onset? |
| A)
Reduce collective pitch and increase rotor RPM. |
| B)
Reduce collective pitch and decrease rotor RPM. |
| C)
Increase collective pitch and increase rotor RPM. |
| 428. |
J05 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| The
'runway hold position' sign denotes |
| A) an
entrance to runway from a taxiway |
| B)
intersecting runways. |
| C) an
area protected for an aircraft approaching a runway. |
|
TRAINING
