|
06/09/2003
Bank: (Airline Transport Pilot)
Airman Knowledge Test Question Bank
| The FAA computer-assisted testing system is supported by a series of
supplement publications. These publications, available through several
aviation publishers, include the graphics, legends, and maps that are needed
to successfully respond to certain test items. Please download the file
Supplements.pdf at the Internet address of
http://afs600.faa.gov/ for a complete list of the associated supplement
books. |
| 1. |
J34 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 1, legend 15 and appendix 2, figure 215.) Windsor Locks/Bradley
Intl, is an FAR Part 139 airport. What minimum number of aircraft rescue and
fire-fighting vehicles, and what type and amount of fire-fighting agents are
the airport required to have? |
| A) Three
vehicles and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC), or Halon 1211 or 450 pounds DC
and 4,000 gallons of water. |
| B) Three
vehicles and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC), or Halon 1211 or 450 pounds DC
plus 3,000 gallons of water. |
| C) Two
vehicles and 600 pounds dry chemical (DC), or Halon 1211 or 500 pounds of DC
plus 4,000 gallons of water. |
| 2. |
A32 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| How many
hours of satisfactory flight navigation experience must an applicant have
logged to apply for a Flight Navigator Certificate if the applicant has no
pilot time? |
| A) 300
hours. |
| B) 200
hours. |
| C) 100
hours. |
| 3. |
C20 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| An
airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate
holder for the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular
airport is not available is a/an: |
| A)
alternate airport. |
| B)
provisional airport. |
| C)
destination airport. |
| 4. |
A02 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| The
maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop
the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is |
| A) VEF. |
| B) V1. |
| C) V2. |
| 5. |
B07 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| The
maximum indicated airspeed that an aircraft may be flown in Class B
airspace, after departing the primary airport, while at 1,700 feet AGL and
3.5 nautical miles from the airport is |
| A) 250
knots. |
| B) 200
knots. |
| C) 230
knots. |
| 6. |
B09 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What is
the required flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are operating
in Class E airspace at 9,500 feet with a VFR-on-Top clearance during
daylight hours? |
| A) 3
statute miles, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal. |
| B) 5
statute miles, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal. |
| C) 3
statute miles, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal. |
| 7. |
C10 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| When a
passenger notifies the certificate holder prior to checking baggage that an
unloaded weapon is in the baggage, what action is required by regulation
regarding this baggage? |
| A) The
baggage must remain locked and carried in an area that is inaccessible to
the passenger, and only the passenger retains the key. |
| B) The
baggage must remain locked and stored where it would be inaccessible, and
custody of the key shall remain with a designated crewmember. |
| C) The
baggage may be carried in the flightcrew compartment, provided the baggage
remains locked, and the key is given to the pilot in command. |
| 8. |
F02 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 1, Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 172.) If not excepted, what label,
if any, must be placed on a package containing acetone? |
| A)
POISON. |
| B)
FLAMMABLE LIQUID. |
| C) No
label is required. |
| 9. |
G03 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 1, Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 175.) What is the minimum distance
that a package of radioactive materials bearing the label 'RADIOACTIVE
YELLOW II' and having a transport index of 15, may be placed from a space
continuously occupied by people? |
| A) 3
feet. |
| B) 5
feet. |
| C) 4
feet. |
| 10. |
G11 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What
period of time must a person be hospitalized before an injury may be defined
by the NTSB as a 'serious injury'? |
| A) 48
hours; commencing within 7 days after date of the injury. |
| B) 72
hours; commencing within 10 days after date of injury. |
| C) 10
days, with no other extenuating circumstances. |
| 11. |
E11 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Who is
responsible for submitting a Mechanical Reliability Report? |
| A) Each
certificate holder. |
| B) Chief
inspector at the facility where the condition is found. |
| C)
Director of maintenance at the facility that discovers the reportable
condition. |
| 12. |
B11 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What
facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a
Category I ILS approach? |
| A)
Compass locator, PAR, and ASR. |
| B) ASR
and PAR. |
| C) The
middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums. |
| 13. |
E09 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figure 2.) May a small transport category,
turbine-engine-powered airplane that has a computed landing distance of
5,500 feet use one or both of the runways depicted in the illustration at
the destination airport? |
| A) Rwy 1
or Rwy 19 may be used whether conditions are wet or dry. |
| B)
Neither Rwy 1 nor Rwy 19 may be used if dry conditions exist. |
| C) Only
Rwy 19 may be used provided dry conditions exist. |
| 14. |
E09 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figure 1.) What is the maximum landing distance that may be
used by a turbopropeller-powered, small transport category airplane to land
on Rwy 24 (dry) at the alternate airport? |
| A) 6,405
feet. |
| B) 5,490
feet. |
| C) 6,210
feet. |
| 15. |
E05 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| No
person may serve, as second in command of an aircraft (under part 135),
unless they hold a commercial pilot certificate with the appropriate
category, class rating and an instrument rating. For flight under IFR, that
person must have accomplished within the last 6 months, the recent
instrument requirements of |
| A)
holding procedures, using the navigation systems for intercepting and
tracking courses, and 6 instrument approaches. |
| B) using
the navigation systems for interception and tracking of courses, 6
instrument low approaches and holding. |
| C) using
the navigation systems to intercept and track 3 inbound/3outbound courses, 6
holding patterns and 6 instrument approaches.. |
| 16. |
E09 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figure 1.) What is the maximum landing distance that may be
used by a turbine-engine-powered, small transport category airplane to land
on Rwy 6 (wet) at the destination airport? |
| A) 5,460
feet. |
| B) 6,088
feet. |
| C) 5,880
feet. |
| 17. |
E04 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| If the
weather forecasts do not require the listing of an alternate airport on an
IFR flight, the airplane must carry sufficient fuel to fly to the
destination airport and |
| A) fly
for 45 minutes thereafter at normal cruise climb speed. |
| B) make
one missed approach and thereafter have a 45-minute reserve at normal
cruising speed. |
| C) fly
thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed. |
| 18. |
E10 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| If a
certificate holder makes arrangements for another person to perform aircraft
maintenance, that maintenance shall be performed in accordance with the |
| A)
provisions of a contract prepared by a certificate holder and approved by
the supervising FAA district office. |
| B)
certificate holder's manual and FAR Parts 43, 91, and 135. |
| C)
provisions and standards as outlined in the certificate holder's manual. |
| 19. |
E07 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| To serve
as pilot in command in an IFR operation, a person must have passed a line
check |
| A)
within the past 12 months, which include a portion of a civil airway and one
instrument approach at one representative airport, in one of the types of
aircraft which that pilot is to fly. |
| B) since
the beginning of the 12th month before that service, which included at least
one flight over a civil airway, or approved off-airway route, or any portion
of either, in one type of aircraft which that pilot is to fly. |
| C)
consisting of a flight over the route to be flown, with at least three
instrument approaches at representative airports, within the past 12
calendar months, in one type of aircraft which that pilot is to fly. |
| 20. |
E02 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| With
regard to flight crewmember duties, which operations are considered to be in
the 'critical phase of flight'? |
| A)
Descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective of altitudes
MSL. |
| B) All
ground operations involving taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations
conducted below 10,000 feet, excluding cruise flight. |
| C) All
ground operations involving taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations
conducted below 10,000 feet MSL, including cruise flight. |
| 21. |
E07 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| A pilot
in command who is authorized to use an autopilot system, in place of a
second in command, may take the autopilot check |
| A)
concurrently with the instrument proficiency check, but at 12 month
intervals. |
| B)
concurrently with the competency check, providing the check is taken at 12
month intervals. |
| C) in
any aircraft appropriately equipped, providing the check is taken at 6 month
intervals. |
| 22. |
E05 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Pilot
flight time limitations under FAR Part 135 are based |
| A)
solely on flight time accumulated in air taxi operations. |
| B) on
the flight time accumulated in any commercial flying. |
| C)
solely on flight time accumulated during commercial flying, in the last 30
day and/or 12 month period. |
| 23. |
E03 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| An
airplane, operated by a commuter air carrier, flying in extended overwater
operations must carry enough approved liferafts of a rated capacity and
buoyancy to accommodate the occupants of the aircraft. Each liferaft must be
equipped with |
| A) one
approved pyrotechnic signaling device. |
| B) one
fishing kit for each person, the raft is rated to carry. |
| C)
colored smoke flares and a signal mirror. |
| 24. |
E04 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| No
person may takeoff an aircraft under IFR from an airport that has takeoff
weather minimums but that is below landing minimums unless there is an
alternate airport within |
| A) 1
hour at normal cruise speed in still air of the departure airport. |
| B) 1
hour at normal indicated airspeed of the departure airport. |
| C) 1
hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine operating. |
| 25. |
E04 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 173, and 173A.) The PIC of PTZ 70 has less than 100
hours of PIC time in the BE 1900. Due to BUF weather being 100 feet, 1/4
mile in blowing snow, which is below landing minimums, the PIC requested and
received clearance to SYR, the filed alternate. |
| Under
Part 135 what are the PIC's minimums at SYR for the ILS RWY 10? |
| A)
800/2. |
| B)
671/40. |
| C)
771/64. |
| 26. |
E03 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Federal
Aviation Regulations require that interior emergency lights, on aircraft
having a passenger seating configuration of 20 to |
| A) be
armed or turned on during taxiing and all flight operations. |
| B)
operate automatically when subjected to a negative G load. |
| C) be
operable manually from the flightcrew station and a point in the passenger
compartment. |
| 27. |
E08 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| A
crewmember who has served as second in command on a particular aircraft type
(e.g., BE-1900), may serve as pilot in command upon completing which
training program? |
| A)
transition training. |
| B)
initial training. |
| C)
upgrade training. |
| 28. |
E08 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| A person
whose duties include the handling or carriage of dangerous articles and/or
magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed, an approved
training program established by the certificate holder, within the previous |
| A) 24
calendar months. |
| B) 6
calendar months. |
| C) 12
calendar months. |
| 29. |
D09 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| For
which of these aircraft is the 'clearway' for a particular runway considered
in computing takeoff weight limitations? |
| A) U.S.
certified air carrier airplanes certificated after August 29, 1959. |
| B)
Turbine-engine-powered transport airplanes certificated after September 30,
1958. |
| C) Those
passenger-carrying transport aircraft certificated between August 26, 1957
and August 30, 1959. |
| 30. |
E04 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figure 182A.) The PIC on EAB 90 has not flown 100 hours as
PIC in the BE 1900 (CAT B aircraft). What are the minimums for the PIC when
flying the ILS RWY 09R, at PHL? |
| A)
321/36. |
| B)
221/18. |
| C)
321/42. |
| 31. |
E08 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| The
training required for flight crewmembers who have not qualified and served
in the same capacity on an aircraft is |
| A)
initial training. |
| B)
transition training. |
| C)
upgrade training. |
| 32. |
E03 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| The
crewmember interphone system on a large turbojet- powered airplane provides
a means of two-way communications between ground personnel and at least one
of two flight crewmembers in the pilot compartment, when the aircraft is on
the ground. |
| The
interphone station for use by ground personnel must be located so that those
using the system from that station |
| A) are
always visible from within the airplane. |
| B) may
avoid visible detection from within the airplane. |
| C) are
able to avoid the intake areas of the engines. |
| 33. |
E03 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which
document would constitute an approved change to the type design without
requiring a recertification? |
| A) An
approved Minimum Equipment List. |
| B) A
special flight permit. |
| C) The
Operations Specifications as approved by the Administrator. |
| 34. |
E03 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| No
person may operate an aircraft under 14 CFR part 135, carrying passengers
under VFR at night, unless |
| A) it is
equipped with a flashlight having at least two size 'D' cell or the
equivalent. |
| B) each
flight crewmember has a flashlight having at least two size 'D' batteries or
the equivalent. |
| C) each
crewmember has a flashlight having at least two size 'D' cells and a spare
bulb. |
| 35. |
E05 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| An
employee who performs safety-sensitive functions, for a certificate holder,
who has actual knowledge of an accident involving an aircraft for which he
or she performed a safety-sensitive function at or near the time of the
accident shall not use alcohol |
| A)
within 8 hours of the accident. |
| B) until
given a release by the NTSB or FAA. |
| C) until
4 hours after the accident. |
| 36. |
E06 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What is
the maximum number of hours that a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days as a
pilot in commercial flying and as a pilot for a commuter air carrier? |
| A) 34
hours. |
| B) 35
hours. |
| C) 32
hours. |
| 37. |
E01 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| The
pilot in command may deviate from 14 CFR Part 135 during an emergency
involving the safety of persons or property only |
| A) if
required to, by the emergency cockpit checklist. |
| B) after
ATC is notified of the emergency and the extent of deviation required. |
| C) to
the extent required to meet that emergency. |
| 38. |
E08 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| The
certificate holder must give instruction on such subjects as respiration,
hypoxia, gas expansion, and decompression to crewmembers who serve in
operations above |
| A) FL
180. |
| B) FL
250. |
| C) FL
200. |
| 39. |
E02 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Above
which altitude/flight level must at least one of the two pilots, at the
controls of a pressurized aircraft (with quick-donning masks) wear a secured
and sealed oxygen mask? |
| A) FL
300. |
| B) FL
250. |
| C) FL
350. |
| 40. |
E02 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| A flight
attendant crewmember is required on aircraft having a passenger seating
configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of |
| A) 19 or
more. |
| B) 20 or
more. |
| C) 15 or
more. |
| 41. |
E02 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Before
each takeoff, the pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers shall
ensure that all passengers have been orally briefed on the |
| A) use
of seatbelts, smoking, and location and use of survival equipment. |
| B)
location of normal and emergency exits, oxygen masks, and life preservers. |
| C) use
of safety belts, location and operation of fire extinguishers, and smoking. |
| 42. |
E02 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which
person, other than the second in command, may the pilot in command permit to
manipulate the flight controls? |
| A) A
pilot employed by an engineering firm who is authorized by the certificate
holder to conduct flight tests. |
| B) A
member of the National Transportation Safety Board who holds a pilot
certificate appropriate for the aircraft. |
| C) An
authorized FAA safety representative who is qualified in the aircraft, and
is checking flight operations. |
| 43. |
E02 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which
restriction must be observed regarding the carrying of cargo in the
passenger compartment? |
| A) It is
packaged or covered to avoid possible injury to occupants. |
| B) Cargo
carried in passenger seats must be forward of all passengers. |
| C) All
cargo must be carried in a suitable bin and secured to a passenger seat or
the floor structure of the aircraft. |
| 44. |
E02 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| A
commuter air carrier certificate holder plans to assign a pilot as pilot in
command of an aircraft having eight passenger seats to be used in
passenger-carrying operations. Which experience requirement must that pilot
meet if the aircraft is to be flown with an operative approved autopilot and
no second in command? |
| A) 50
hours and 10 landings as pilot in command in the make and model. |
| B) 100
hours as pilot in command in the category, class, and type. |
| C) 100
hours as pilot in command in the make and model. |
| 45. |
D14 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| In a
cargo-only operation, cargo must be loaded |
| A) in
such a manner that at least one emergency or regular exit is available to
all crewmembers, if an emergency occurs. |
| B) in
such a manner that at least one emergency or regular exit is available to
all occupants. |
| C) so
that it does not obstruct the aisle between the crew and cargo compartments. |
| 46. |
B10 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 168, 169, and 169A.) What action should be taken by
the pilot if communications are lost after departure from RWY 16 at PWK if
VMC? |
| A) Start
right turn within 1 mile of the departure end of RWY, remain east of ORD VOR/DME
R-345, and maintain 3,000 feet; 3 minutes after departure, turn direct to
PMM, and climb to FL 190. |
| B) Climb
to 3,000 feet; after 3 minutes, turn direct to PMM and climb to FL 190. |
| C)
Continue the flight under VMC and land as soon as practicable. |
| 47. |
E01 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| A
certificate holder must have 'exclusive use' of |
| A) at
least one aircraft that meets the requirements of the specific operations
authorized in the certificate holder's Operations Specifications. |
| B) at
least one aircraft that meets the requirements of each kind of operation
authorized in the Operations Specifications. |
| C) at
least one aircraft that meets the requirements of at least one kind of
operation authorized in the certificate holder's Operations Specifications. |
| 48. |
E06 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What
minimum rest period must be provided for a pilot assigned to Helicopter
Hospital Emergency Medical Evacuation Service (HEMES) who has been on duty
for a 47-hour period? |
| A) 16
consecutive hours. |
| B) 12
consecutive hours. |
| C) 14
consecutive hours. |
| 49. |
E01 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| If
previous arrangements have not been made by the operator, where can the
procedures for servicing the aircraft be found? |
| A)
Certificate holder's manual. |
| B)
Certificate holder's maintenance manual. |
| C)
Pilot's Handbook. |
| 50. |
E01 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| An
aircraft being operated outside of the United States, over a foreign
country, by a 14 CFR part 135 operator must comply with |
| A) rules
of the U.S. State Department and the foreign country. |
| B)
regulations of the foreign country. |
| C) the
International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO), Annex 3, Rules of the Air. |
| 51. |
E01 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What
document contains procedures that explain how the required return-to-service
conditions have been met? |
| A)
Maintenance manual. |
| B)
Certificate holder's manual. |
| C)
Pilot's Handbook. |
| 52. |
E02 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Where
must a certificate holder keep copies of completed load manifests and for
what period of time? |
| A) 30
days, at the flight's destination. |
| B) 1
month at its principal operations base, or at a location approved by the
Administrator. |
| C) 30
days at its principal operations base, or another location used by it and
approved by the Administrator. |
| 53. |
E03 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What are
the empty weight and balance currency requirements for aircraft used in air
taxi service? |
| A) The
empty weight and CG of multiengine aircraft must have been calculated from
an actual weighing within the previous 36 calendar months. |
| B) The
empty weight and CG of multiengine and single-engine aircraft must have been
calculated from an actual weighing within the previous 36 calendar months. |
| C) The
empty weight and CG must have been calculated from an actual weighing within
the previous 24 calendar months unless the original Airworthiness
Certificate was issued within the previous 36 calendar months. |
| 54. |
E03 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which
condition must be met to conduct IFR operations from an airport that is not
at the location where weather observations are made? |
| A) The
Administrator must issue Operations Specifications that permit the
procedure. |
| B) An
'Authorization Letter' permitting the procedure must be issued by the FAA
district office charged with the overall inspection of the certificate
holder.. |
| C) A
'Letter of Waiver' authorizing the procedure must be issued by the
Administrator, after an investigation by the U.S. National Weather Service
and the FSDO which find the standard of safety to be satisfactory. |
| 55. |
E03 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| In which
airplanes is a ground proximity warning system required? |
| A)
Turbine-powered aircraft having a passenger seating configuration, including
any pilot seat, of 10 seats or more. |
| B)
Turbine-powered airplanes having a passenger seating configuration,
excluding any pilot seat, of 10 seats or more. |
| C) All
airplanes having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot
seat, of 10 seats or more. |
| 56. |
E04 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Assuming
the required ceiling exists, an alternate for the destination airport is not
required if, for at least 1 hour before and after the ETA, the forecast
visibility is at least |
| A) 3
miles, or 2 miles more than the lowest applicable visibility minimums for
the instrument approach procedure to be used, whichever is greater. |
| B) 5
miles, or 3 miles more than the lowest applicable visibility minimums for
the instrument approach procedure to be used, whichever is greater. |
| C) 3
nautical miles, or 2 nautical miles more than the lowest applicable
visibility minimums for the approach procedure to be used, which ever is
greater. |
| 57. |
E03 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which
airplanes must have a shoulder harness installed at each flight crewmember
station? |
| A) All
airplanes operating under FAR Part 135, having a seating configuration for
10 persons. |
| B) All
turbojet-powered airplanes. |
| C) All
airplanes used in commuter air service, having a passenger seating
configuration of 9, excluding any pilot seat. |
| 58. |
E03 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which is
a requirement for life preservers during extended overwater operations? Each
life preserver must be equipped with |
| A) one
flashlight having at least two size 'D' cells or equivalent. |
| B) a dye
marker. |
| C) an
approved survivor locator light. |
| 59. |
E05 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What are
the minimum certificate and rating requirements for the pilot in command of
a multiengine airplane being operated by a commuter air carrier? |
| A)
Airline transport pilot; airplane category; multiengine class. |
| B)
Airline transport pilot; airplane category; multiengine class; airplane type
rating, if required. |
| C)
Commercial pilot; airplane category; multiengine class; instrument rating;
airplane type rating, if required. |
| 60. |
E03 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| A
pressurized airplane being operated at FL 330 can descend safely to 15,000
feet MSL in 3.5 minutes. What oxygen supply must be carried for all
occupants other than the pilots? |
| A) 60
minutes. |
| B) 30
minutes. |
| C) 45
minutes. |
| 61. |
E04 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which is
an operational requirement concerning ice, snow, or frost on structural
surfaces? |
| A) If
snow, ice, or frost is adhering to the airplane's lift or control surfaces,
but polished smooth, a takeoff may be made. |
| B) A
takeoff may be made with ice, snow, or frost adhering to the wings or
stabilizing or control surfaces, but polished smooth, if the anti-icing and
deicing equipment is operating. |
| C) A
takeoff may not be made if ice or snow is adhering to the wings or
stabilizing or control surfaces. |
| 62. |
E02 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| The load
manifest must be prepared prior to each takeoff for |
| A) any
aircraft with more than one engine. |
| B) any
aircraft with a passenger seating capacity of 10 seats or more. |
| C) all
helicopters and large aircraft operated by a commuter air carrier. |
| 63. |
E02 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What is
the minimum passenger seating configuration that requires a second in
command? |
| A) 12
seats. |
| B) 15
seats. |
| C) 10
seats. |
| 64. |
E02 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| During
which time period must a required voice recorder of a passenger-carrying
airplane be continuously operated? |
| A) From
engine start at departure airport to engine shutdown at landing airport. |
| B) From
the use of the checklist before the flight to completion of the final check
at the end of the flight. |
| C) From
the beginning of taxi to the end of the landing roll. |
| 65. |
E03 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| An
approved cockpit voice recorder is required equipment in |
| A)
multiengine, turbine-powered airplanes having a passenger seating
configuration of 20 or more seats. |
| B) all
aircraft operated in commuter air carrier service having a passenger seating
configuration of 20 seats or more. |
| C) large
turbine-powered airplanes having a maximum passenger capacity of 20 or more
seats. |
| 66. |
E03 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which
aircraft must be equipped with an approved public address and crewmember
interphone system? |
| A)
Multiengine aircraft having a passenger seating configuration of 10 seats or
more. |
| B) All
turbine-engine-powered aircraft having a seating configuration of more than
19 seats. |
| C)
Aircraft having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat,
of more than 19 seats. |
| 67. |
E03 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| The
weight and CG of an aircraft used in air taxi service must have been
calculated from those values established by actual weighing of the aircraft
within what period of time? |
| A)
Multiengine aircraft, last 36 calendar months; single-engine, last 24
calendar months. |
| B)
Multiengine and single-engine aircraft, preceding 36 calendar months. |
| C)
Multiengine aircraft, preceding 36 calendar months. |
| 68. |
E03 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What
performance is required of a multiengine airplane with the critical engine
inoperative, while carrying passengers for hire in IFR weather conditions? |
| A) Climb
at least 100 ft/min at the highest MEA of the route to be flown or 5,000
feet MSL, whichever is higher. |
| B) Climb
at least 50 ft/min at the MEA's of the route to be flown or 5,000 feet MSL,
whichever is higher. |
| C) Climb
at least 50 ft/min at the MEA's of the route to be flown or 5,000 feet AGL,
whichever is higher. |
| 69. |
E02 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which is
a requirement governing the carriage of carry-on baggage? |
| A) All
carry-on baggage must be restrained so that its movement is prevented during
air turbulence. |
| B)
Pieces of carry-on baggage weighing more than 10 pounds must be carried in
an approved rack or bin. |
| C)
Carry-on baggage must be stowed under the seat in front of the owner. |
| 70. |
E03 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| When a
crash ax is required equipment on an aircraft, where should it be located? |
| A) At a
location accessible to both the crew and passengers during normal
operations. |
| B) In
the flight crew compartment. |
| C) At a
location inaccessible to the passengers during normal operations. |
| 71. |
E03 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| How
many, if any, approved first aid kits are required on an aircraft having a
passenger seating configuration of 20 seats and a passenger load of 14? |
| A) Two. |
| B) One. |
| C) None. |
| 72. |
E03 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Airborne
weather radar equipment must be installed in large transport category
aircraft, in the conterminous 48 United States, |
| A) that
are engaged in passenger-carrying operations. |
| B) and
be fully operational, although weather forecasts indicate no hazardous
conditions. |
| C) that
are engaged in either cargo or passenger-carrying operations. |
| 73. |
E03 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which
performance requirement applies to passenger-carrying land airplanes being
operated over water? |
| A)
Multiengine airplanes must be able to climb, with the critical engine
inoperative, at least 100 ft/min at 1,000 feet above the surface. |
| B)
Single-engine airplanes must be operated at an altitude that will allow them
to reach land in case of engine failure. |
| C)
Multiengine airplanes must be able to climb, with the critical engine
inoperative, at least 50 ft/min at 1,500 feet above the surface. |
| 74. |
D21 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| If a
four-engine air carrier airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below
landing minimums, what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate
airport may be located from the departure airport? |
| A) Not
more than 2 hours at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine
inoperative. |
| B) Not
more than 2 hours at cruise speed with one engine inoperative. |
| C) Not
more than 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine
inoperative. |
| 75. |
D21 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| The
minimum weather conditions that must exist for an airport to be listed as an
alternate in the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight are |
| A) those
listed in the NOAA IAP charts for the alternate airport, from 1 hours before
or after the ETA for that flight. |
| B) those
listed in the NOAA IAP charts for the alternate airport, at the time the
flight is expected to arrive. |
| C) those
specified in the certificate holder's Operations Specifications for that
airport, when the flight arrives. |
| 76. |
D20 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Which
passenger announcement(s) must be made after each takeoff? |
| A) How
to use the passenger oxygen system and that there is a $1,000 fine for
tampering with a smoke detector. |
| B) Keep
safety belts fastened while seated and no smoking in the aircraft
lavatories. |
| C)
Passengers should keep seat belts fastened while seated. |
| 77. |
D21 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| An
airport is not listed in a domestic Air Carrier's Operations Specifications
and does not have the prescribed takeoff weather minimums. What are the
minimum weather conditions required for takeoff? |
| A)
1000-1/2. |
| B)
900-1. |
| C)
800-2. |
| 78. |
D21 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| The
minimum weather conditions that must exist for a domestic air carrier flight
to take off from an airport that is not listed in the Air Carrier's
Operations Specifications (takeoff minimums are not prescribed for that
airport.) is |
| A) 1,000
- 1, 900 - 11/4, or 800 - 2. |
| B) 1,000
- 1, 900 - 11/2, or 800 - 2. |
| C) 800 -
2, 1,100 - 1, or 900 - 11/2. |
| 79. |
D21 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| What
action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an
air carrier airplane? |
| A) Add
15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off. |
| B) Sweep
off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth. |
| C)
Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane. |
| 80. |
D05 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Who must
the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate
with, under normal conditions, along the entire route (in either direction)
of flight? |
| A)
Appropriate dispatch office. |
| B) Any
FSS. |
| C) ARINC. |
| 81. |
D18 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| How does
deadhead transportation, going to or from a duty assignment, affect the
computation of flight time limits for air carrier flight crewmembers? It is |
| A) not
considered to be part of a rest period. |
| B)
considered part of the rest period for flight engineers and navigators. |
| C)
considered part of the rest period if the flightcrew includes more than two
pilots. |
| 82. |
D21 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| A
domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground, at an
intermediate airport. How long before a redispatch release is required? |
| A) Not
more than 2 hours. |
| B) More
than 6 hours. |
| C) Not
more than 1 hour. |
| 83. |
D20 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Each
crewmember shall have readily available for individual use on each flight a |
| A)
flashlight in good working order. |
| B) key
to the flight deck door. |
| C)
certificate holder's manual. |
| 84. |
D20 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| If it
becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier
three-engine turbojet airplane, the pilot in command |
| A) may
continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing
at the nearest suitable airport. |
| B) may
continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft
dispatcher. |
| C) must
land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe
landing can be made. |
| 85. |
D20 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| An
aircraft dispatcher declares an emergency for a flight and a deviation
results. A written report shall be sent by the |
| A)
dispatcher to the FAA Administrator within 10 days. |
| B) pilot
in command to the FAA Administrator within 10 days. |
| C) air
carrier's operations manager to the FAA Administrator within 10 days. |
| 86. |
D20 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| When the
pilot in command is responsible for a deviation during an emergency, the
pilot should submit a written report within |
| A) 10
days after returning home. |
| B) 10
days after the deviation. |
| C) 10
days after returning to home base. |
| 87. |
D20 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Assuring
that appropriate aeronautical charts are aboard an aircraft is the
responsibility of the |
| A)
flight navigator. |
| B) pilot
in command. |
| C)
aircraft dispatcher. |
| 88. |
D20 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| When
carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft, which of the following
applies? |
| A)
Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the passenger. |
| B) The
passenger must have access to a seat in the pilot compartment. |
| C) The
pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew
compartment. |
| 89. |
D22 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| The
information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers and
commercial operators that is not required in the dispatch release for flag
and domestic air carriers is the |
| A)
minimum fuel supply. |
| B)
weather reports and forecasts. |
| C) names
of all crewmembers. |
| 90. |
D20 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Below
what altitude, except when in cruise flight, are non-safety related cockpit
activities by flight crewmembers prohibited? |
| A) FL
180. |
| B)
14,500 feet. |
| C)
10,000 feet. |
| 91. |
D13 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Where is
a list maintained for routes that require special navigation equipment? |
| A)
International Flight Information Manual. |
| B) Air
Carrier's Operations Specifications. |
| C)
Airplane Flight Manual. |
| 92. |
D21 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| When a
pilot's flight time consists of 80 hours' pilot in command in a particular
type airplane, how does this affect the minimums for the destination
airport? |
| A) Has
no effect on destination but alternate minimums are no less than 300 and 1. |
| B)
Minimums are increased by 100 feet and 1/2 mile. |
| C)
Minimums are decreased by 100 feet and 1/2 mile. |
| 93. |
I13 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to appendix 2, figures 115, 116, 117, 118, 118A, 118B, and 118C.) |
| At ARLIN
Intersection, PTL 130 is notified that the Phoenix Sky Harbor Airport is
closed. PTL 130 is told to proceed to Tucson. PTL 130 is operating under FAR
Part 121. The PIC on PTL 130 has less than 100 hours as PIC in the B-727
(approach category C). |
| What are
the PIC's minimums for the VOR RWY 11L approach at Tucson Intl Airport? |
| A)
2,960-1. |
| B)
2,860-1/2. |
| C)
2,900-1. |
| 94. |
D21 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| Under
what conditions may an air carrier pilot continue an instrument approach to
the DH, after receiving a weather report indicating that less than minimum
published landing conditions exist at the airport? |
| A) If
the instrument approach is conducted in a radar environment. |
| B) When
the weather report is received after the pilot has begun the final approach
segment of the instrument approach. |
| C) When
the weather report is received as the pilot passes the FAF. |
| 95. |
D21 |
ATP |
|
|
|
| If a
required instrument on a multiengine airpla | |
TRAINING
