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06/09/2003
Bank: (Airline Transport Pilot)
Airman Knowledge Test Question Bank

 

The FAA computer-assisted testing system is supported by a series of supplement publications. These publications, available through several aviation publishers, include the graphics, legends, and maps that are needed to successfully respond to certain test items. Please download the file Supplements.pdf at the Internet address of http://afs600.faa.gov/ for a complete list of the associated supplement books.


 

1. J34 ATP      
(Refer to appendix 1, legend 15 and appendix 2, figure 215.) Windsor Locks/Bradley Intl, is an FAR Part 139 airport. What minimum number of aircraft rescue and fire-fighting vehicles, and what type and amount of fire-fighting agents are the airport required to have?
A) Three vehicles and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC), or Halon 1211 or 450 pounds DC and 4,000 gallons of water.
B) Three vehicles and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC), or Halon 1211 or 450 pounds DC plus 3,000 gallons of water.
C) Two vehicles and 600 pounds dry chemical (DC), or Halon 1211 or 500 pounds of DC plus 4,000 gallons of water.


 

2. A32 ATP      
How many hours of satisfactory flight navigation experience must an applicant have logged to apply for a Flight Navigator Certificate if the applicant has no pilot time?
A) 300 hours.
B) 200 hours.
C) 100 hours.


 

3. C20 ATP      
An airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular airport is not available is a/an:
A) alternate airport.
B) provisional airport.
C) destination airport.


 

4. A02 ATP      
The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is
A) VEF.
B) V1.
C) V2.


 

5. B07 ATP      
The maximum indicated airspeed that an aircraft may be flown in Class B airspace, after departing the primary airport, while at 1,700 feet AGL and 3.5 nautical miles from the airport is
A) 250 knots.
B) 200 knots.
C) 230 knots.


 

6. B09 ATP      
What is the required flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are operating in Class E airspace at 9,500 feet with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours?
A) 3 statute miles, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.
B) 5 statute miles, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.
C) 3 statute miles, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.


 

7. C10 ATP      
When a passenger notifies the certificate holder prior to checking baggage that an unloaded weapon is in the baggage, what action is required by regulation regarding this baggage?
A) The baggage must remain locked and carried in an area that is inaccessible to the passenger, and only the passenger retains the key.
B) The baggage must remain locked and stored where it would be inaccessible, and custody of the key shall remain with a designated crewmember.
C) The baggage may be carried in the flightcrew compartment, provided the baggage remains locked, and the key is given to the pilot in command.


 

8. F02 ATP      
(Refer to appendix 1, Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 172.) If not excepted, what label, if any, must be placed on a package containing acetone?
A) POISON.
B) FLAMMABLE LIQUID.
C) No label is required.


 

9. G03 ATP      
(Refer to appendix 1, Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 175.) What is the minimum distance that a package of radioactive materials bearing the label 'RADIOACTIVE YELLOW II' and having a transport index of 15, may be placed from a space continuously occupied by people?
A) 3 feet.
B) 5 feet.
C) 4 feet.


 

10. G11 ATP      
What period of time must a person be hospitalized before an injury may be defined by the NTSB as a 'serious injury'?
A) 48 hours; commencing within 7 days after date of the injury.
B) 72 hours; commencing within 10 days after date of injury.
C) 10 days, with no other extenuating circumstances.


 

11. E11 ATP      
Who is responsible for submitting a Mechanical Reliability Report?
A) Each certificate holder.
B) Chief inspector at the facility where the condition is found.
C) Director of maintenance at the facility that discovers the reportable condition.


 

12. B11 ATP      
What facilities may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach?
A) Compass locator, PAR, and ASR.
B) ASR and PAR.
C) The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums.


 

13. E09 ATP      
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 2.) May a small transport category, turbine-engine-powered airplane that has a computed landing distance of 5,500 feet use one or both of the runways depicted in the illustration at the destination airport?
A) Rwy 1 or Rwy 19 may be used whether conditions are wet or dry.
B) Neither Rwy 1 nor Rwy 19 may be used if dry conditions exist.
C) Only Rwy 19 may be used provided dry conditions exist.


 

14. E09 ATP      
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 1.) What is the maximum landing distance that may be used by a turbopropeller-powered, small transport category airplane to land on Rwy 24 (dry) at the alternate airport?
A) 6,405 feet.
B) 5,490 feet.
C) 6,210 feet.


 

15. E05 ATP      
No person may serve, as second in command of an aircraft (under part 135), unless they hold a commercial pilot certificate with the appropriate category, class rating and an instrument rating. For flight under IFR, that person must have accomplished within the last 6 months, the recent instrument requirements of
A) holding procedures, using the navigation systems for intercepting and tracking courses, and 6 instrument approaches.
B) using the navigation systems for interception and tracking of courses, 6 instrument low approaches and holding.
C) using the navigation systems to intercept and track 3 inbound/3outbound courses, 6 holding patterns and 6 instrument approaches..


 

16. E09 ATP      
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 1.) What is the maximum landing distance that may be used by a turbine-engine-powered, small transport category airplane to land on Rwy 6 (wet) at the destination airport?
A) 5,460 feet.
B) 6,088 feet.
C) 5,880 feet.


 

17. E04 ATP      
If the weather forecasts do not require the listing of an alternate airport on an IFR flight, the airplane must carry sufficient fuel to fly to the destination airport and
A) fly for 45 minutes thereafter at normal cruise climb speed.
B) make one missed approach and thereafter have a 45-minute reserve at normal cruising speed.
C) fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.


 

18. E10 ATP      
If a certificate holder makes arrangements for another person to perform aircraft maintenance, that maintenance shall be performed in accordance with the
A) provisions of a contract prepared by a certificate holder and approved by the supervising FAA district office.
B) certificate holder's manual and FAR Parts 43, 91, and 135.
C) provisions and standards as outlined in the certificate holder's manual.


 

19. E07 ATP      
To serve as pilot in command in an IFR operation, a person must have passed a line check
A) within the past 12 months, which include a portion of a civil airway and one instrument approach at one representative airport, in one of the types of aircraft which that pilot is to fly.
B) since the beginning of the 12th month before that service, which included at least one flight over a civil airway, or approved off-airway route, or any portion of either, in one type of aircraft which that pilot is to fly.
C) consisting of a flight over the route to be flown, with at least three instrument approaches at representative airports, within the past 12 calendar months, in one type of aircraft which that pilot is to fly.


 

20. E02 ATP      
With regard to flight crewmember duties, which operations are considered to be in the 'critical phase of flight'?
A) Descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective of altitudes MSL.
B) All ground operations involving taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 10,000 feet, excluding cruise flight.
C) All ground operations involving taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 10,000 feet MSL, including cruise flight.


 

21. E07 ATP      
A pilot in command who is authorized to use an autopilot system, in place of a second in command, may take the autopilot check
A) concurrently with the instrument proficiency check, but at 12 month intervals.
B) concurrently with the competency check, providing the check is taken at 12 month intervals.
C) in any aircraft appropriately equipped, providing the check is taken at 6 month intervals.


 

22. E05 ATP      
Pilot flight time limitations under FAR Part 135 are based
A) solely on flight time accumulated in air taxi operations.
B) on the flight time accumulated in any commercial flying.
C) solely on flight time accumulated during commercial flying, in the last 30 day and/or 12 month period.


 

23. E03 ATP      
An airplane, operated by a commuter air carrier, flying in extended overwater operations must carry enough approved liferafts of a rated capacity and buoyancy to accommodate the occupants of the aircraft. Each liferaft must be equipped with
A) one approved pyrotechnic signaling device.
B) one fishing kit for each person, the raft is rated to carry.
C) colored smoke flares and a signal mirror.


 

24. E04 ATP      
No person may takeoff an aircraft under IFR from an airport that has takeoff weather minimums but that is below landing minimums unless there is an alternate airport within
A) 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air of the departure airport.
B) 1 hour at normal indicated airspeed of the departure airport.
C) 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine operating.


 

25. E04 ATP      
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 173, and 173A.) The PIC of PTZ 70 has less than 100 hours of PIC time in the BE 1900. Due to BUF weather being 100 feet, 1/4 mile in blowing snow, which is below landing minimums, the PIC requested and received clearance to SYR, the filed alternate.
Under Part 135 what are the PIC's minimums at SYR for the ILS RWY 10?
A) 800/2.
B) 671/40.
C) 771/64.


 

26. E03 ATP      
Federal Aviation Regulations require that interior emergency lights, on aircraft having a passenger seating configuration of 20 to
A) be armed or turned on during taxiing and all flight operations.
B) operate automatically when subjected to a negative G load.
C) be operable manually from the flightcrew station and a point in the passenger compartment.


 

27. E08 ATP      
A crewmember who has served as second in command on a particular aircraft type (e.g., BE-1900), may serve as pilot in command upon completing which training program?
A) transition training.
B) initial training.
C) upgrade training.


 

28. E08 ATP      
A person whose duties include the handling or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed, an approved training program established by the certificate holder, within the previous
A) 24 calendar months.
B) 6 calendar months.
C) 12 calendar months.


 

29. D09 ATP      
For which of these aircraft is the 'clearway' for a particular runway considered in computing takeoff weight limitations?
A) U.S. certified air carrier airplanes certificated after August 29, 1959.
B) Turbine-engine-powered transport airplanes certificated after September 30, 1958.
C) Those passenger-carrying transport aircraft certificated between August 26, 1957 and August 30, 1959.


 

30. E04 ATP      
(Refer to appendix 2, figure 182A.) The PIC on EAB 90 has not flown 100 hours as PIC in the BE 1900 (CAT B aircraft). What are the minimums for the PIC when flying the ILS RWY 09R, at PHL?
A) 321/36.
B) 221/18.
C) 321/42.


 

31. E08 ATP      
The training required for flight crewmembers who have not qualified and served in the same capacity on an aircraft is
A) initial training.
B) transition training.
C) upgrade training.


 

32. E03 ATP      
The crewmember interphone system on a large turbojet- powered airplane provides a means of two-way communications between ground personnel and at least one of two flight crewmembers in the pilot compartment, when the aircraft is on the ground.
The interphone station for use by ground personnel must be located so that those using the system from that station
A) are always visible from within the airplane.
B) may avoid visible detection from within the airplane.
C) are able to avoid the intake areas of the engines.


 

33. E03 ATP      
Which document would constitute an approved change to the type design without requiring a recertification?
A) An approved Minimum Equipment List.
B) A special flight permit.
C) The Operations Specifications as approved by the Administrator.


 

34. E03 ATP      
No person may operate an aircraft under 14 CFR part 135, carrying passengers under VFR at night, unless
A) it is equipped with a flashlight having at least two size 'D' cell or the equivalent.
B) each flight crewmember has a flashlight having at least two size 'D' batteries or the equivalent.
C) each crewmember has a flashlight having at least two size 'D' cells and a spare bulb.


 

35. E05 ATP      
An employee who performs safety-sensitive functions, for a certificate holder, who has actual knowledge of an accident involving an aircraft for which he or she performed a safety-sensitive function at or near the time of the accident shall not use alcohol
A) within 8 hours of the accident.
B) until given a release by the NTSB or FAA.
C) until 4 hours after the accident.


 

36. E06 ATP      
What is the maximum number of hours that a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days as a pilot in commercial flying and as a pilot for a commuter air carrier?
A) 34 hours.
B) 35 hours.
C) 32 hours.


 

37. E01 ATP      
The pilot in command may deviate from 14 CFR Part 135 during an emergency involving the safety of persons or property only
A) if required to, by the emergency cockpit checklist.
B) after ATC is notified of the emergency and the extent of deviation required.
C) to the extent required to meet that emergency.


 

38. E08 ATP      
The certificate holder must give instruction on such subjects as respiration, hypoxia, gas expansion, and decompression to crewmembers who serve in operations above
A) FL 180.
B) FL 250.
C) FL 200.


 

39. E02 ATP      
Above which altitude/flight level must at least one of the two pilots, at the controls of a pressurized aircraft (with quick-donning masks) wear a secured and sealed oxygen mask?
A) FL 300.
B) FL 250.
C) FL 350.


 

40. E02 ATP      
A flight attendant crewmember is required on aircraft having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of
A) 19 or more.
B) 20 or more.
C) 15 or more.


 

41. E02 ATP      
Before each takeoff, the pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers shall ensure that all passengers have been orally briefed on the
A) use of seatbelts, smoking, and location and use of survival equipment.
B) location of normal and emergency exits, oxygen masks, and life preservers.
C) use of safety belts, location and operation of fire extinguishers, and smoking.


 

42. E02 ATP      
Which person, other than the second in command, may the pilot in command permit to manipulate the flight controls?
A) A pilot employed by an engineering firm who is authorized by the certificate holder to conduct flight tests.
B) A member of the National Transportation Safety Board who holds a pilot certificate appropriate for the aircraft.
C) An authorized FAA safety representative who is qualified in the aircraft, and is checking flight operations.


 

43. E02 ATP      
Which restriction must be observed regarding the carrying of cargo in the passenger compartment?
A) It is packaged or covered to avoid possible injury to occupants.
B) Cargo carried in passenger seats must be forward of all passengers.
C) All cargo must be carried in a suitable bin and secured to a passenger seat or the floor structure of the aircraft.


 

44. E02 ATP      
A commuter air carrier certificate holder plans to assign a pilot as pilot in command of an aircraft having eight passenger seats to be used in passenger-carrying operations. Which experience requirement must that pilot meet if the aircraft is to be flown with an operative approved autopilot and no second in command?
A) 50 hours and 10 landings as pilot in command in the make and model.
B) 100 hours as pilot in command in the category, class, and type.
C) 100 hours as pilot in command in the make and model.


 

45. D14 ATP      
In a cargo-only operation, cargo must be loaded
A) in such a manner that at least one emergency or regular exit is available to all crewmembers, if an emergency occurs.
B) in such a manner that at least one emergency or regular exit is available to all occupants.
C) so that it does not obstruct the aisle between the crew and cargo compartments.


 

46. B10 ATP      
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 168, 169, and 169A.) What action should be taken by the pilot if communications are lost after departure from RWY 16 at PWK if VMC?
A) Start right turn within 1 mile of the departure end of RWY, remain east of ORD VOR/DME R-345, and maintain 3,000 feet; 3 minutes after departure, turn direct to PMM, and climb to FL 190.
B) Climb to 3,000 feet; after 3 minutes, turn direct to PMM and climb to FL 190.
C) Continue the flight under VMC and land as soon as practicable.


 

47. E01 ATP      
A certificate holder must have 'exclusive use' of
A) at least one aircraft that meets the requirements of the specific operations authorized in the certificate holder's Operations Specifications.
B) at least one aircraft that meets the requirements of each kind of operation authorized in the Operations Specifications.
C) at least one aircraft that meets the requirements of at least one kind of operation authorized in the certificate holder's Operations Specifications.


 

48. E06 ATP      
What minimum rest period must be provided for a pilot assigned to Helicopter Hospital Emergency Medical Evacuation Service (HEMES) who has been on duty for a 47-hour period?
A) 16 consecutive hours.
B) 12 consecutive hours.
C) 14 consecutive hours.


 

49. E01 ATP      
If previous arrangements have not been made by the operator, where can the procedures for servicing the aircraft be found?
A) Certificate holder's manual.
B) Certificate holder's maintenance manual.
C) Pilot's Handbook.


 

50. E01 ATP      
An aircraft being operated outside of the United States, over a foreign country, by a 14 CFR part 135 operator must comply with
A) rules of the U.S. State Department and the foreign country.
B) regulations of the foreign country.
C) the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO), Annex 3, Rules of the Air.


 

51. E01 ATP      
What document contains procedures that explain how the required return-to-service conditions have been met?
A) Maintenance manual.
B) Certificate holder's manual.
C) Pilot's Handbook.


 

52. E02 ATP      
Where must a certificate holder keep copies of completed load manifests and for what period of time?
A) 30 days, at the flight's destination.
B) 1 month at its principal operations base, or at a location approved by the Administrator.
C) 30 days at its principal operations base, or another location used by it and approved by the Administrator.


 

53. E03 ATP      
What are the empty weight and balance currency requirements for aircraft used in air taxi service?
A) The empty weight and CG of multiengine aircraft must have been calculated from an actual weighing within the previous 36 calendar months.
B) The empty weight and CG of multiengine and single-engine aircraft must have been calculated from an actual weighing within the previous 36 calendar months.
C) The empty weight and CG must have been calculated from an actual weighing within the previous 24 calendar months unless the original Airworthiness Certificate was issued within the previous 36 calendar months.


 

54. E03 ATP      
Which condition must be met to conduct IFR operations from an airport that is not at the location where weather observations are made?
A) The Administrator must issue Operations Specifications that permit the procedure.
B) An 'Authorization Letter' permitting the procedure must be issued by the FAA district office charged with the overall inspection of the certificate holder..
C) A 'Letter of Waiver' authorizing the procedure must be issued by the Administrator, after an investigation by the U.S. National Weather Service and the FSDO which find the standard of safety to be satisfactory.


 

55. E03 ATP      
In which airplanes is a ground proximity warning system required?
A) Turbine-powered aircraft having a passenger seating configuration, including any pilot seat, of 10 seats or more.
B) Turbine-powered airplanes having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of 10 seats or more.
C) All airplanes having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of 10 seats or more.


 

56. E04 ATP      
Assuming the required ceiling exists, an alternate for the destination airport is not required if, for at least 1 hour before and after the ETA, the forecast visibility is at least
A) 3 miles, or 2 miles more than the lowest applicable visibility minimums for the instrument approach procedure to be used, whichever is greater.
B) 5 miles, or 3 miles more than the lowest applicable visibility minimums for the instrument approach procedure to be used, whichever is greater.
C) 3 nautical miles, or 2 nautical miles more than the lowest applicable visibility minimums for the approach procedure to be used, which ever is greater.


 

57. E03 ATP      
Which airplanes must have a shoulder harness installed at each flight crewmember station?
A) All airplanes operating under FAR Part 135, having a seating configuration for 10 persons.
B) All turbojet-powered airplanes.
C) All airplanes used in commuter air service, having a passenger seating configuration of 9, excluding any pilot seat.


 

58. E03 ATP      
Which is a requirement for life preservers during extended overwater operations? Each life preserver must be equipped with
A) one flashlight having at least two size 'D' cells or equivalent.
B) a dye marker.
C) an approved survivor locator light.


 

59. E05 ATP      
What are the minimum certificate and rating requirements for the pilot in command of a multiengine airplane being operated by a commuter air carrier?
A) Airline transport pilot; airplane category; multiengine class.
B) Airline transport pilot; airplane category; multiengine class; airplane type rating, if required.
C) Commercial pilot; airplane category; multiengine class; instrument rating; airplane type rating, if required.


 

60. E03 ATP      
A pressurized airplane being operated at FL 330 can descend safely to 15,000 feet MSL in 3.5 minutes. What oxygen supply must be carried for all occupants other than the pilots?
A) 60 minutes.
B) 30 minutes.
C) 45 minutes.


 

61. E04 ATP      
Which is an operational requirement concerning ice, snow, or frost on structural surfaces?
A) If snow, ice, or frost is adhering to the airplane's lift or control surfaces, but polished smooth, a takeoff may be made.
B) A takeoff may be made with ice, snow, or frost adhering to the wings or stabilizing or control surfaces, but polished smooth, if the anti-icing and deicing equipment is operating.
C) A takeoff may not be made if ice or snow is adhering to the wings or stabilizing or control surfaces.


 

62. E02 ATP      
The load manifest must be prepared prior to each takeoff for
A) any aircraft with more than one engine.
B) any aircraft with a passenger seating capacity of 10 seats or more.
C) all helicopters and large aircraft operated by a commuter air carrier.


 

63. E02 ATP      
What is the minimum passenger seating configuration that requires a second in command?
A) 12 seats.
B) 15 seats.
C) 10 seats.


 

64. E02 ATP      
During which time period must a required voice recorder of a passenger-carrying airplane be continuously operated?
A) From engine start at departure airport to engine shutdown at landing airport.
B) From the use of the checklist before the flight to completion of the final check at the end of the flight.
C) From the beginning of taxi to the end of the landing roll.


 

65. E03 ATP      
An approved cockpit voice recorder is required equipment in
A) multiengine, turbine-powered airplanes having a passenger seating configuration of 20 or more seats.
B) all aircraft operated in commuter air carrier service having a passenger seating configuration of 20 seats or more.
C) large turbine-powered airplanes having a maximum passenger capacity of 20 or more seats.


 

66. E03 ATP      
Which aircraft must be equipped with an approved public address and crewmember interphone system?
A) Multiengine aircraft having a passenger seating configuration of 10 seats or more.
B) All turbine-engine-powered aircraft having a seating configuration of more than 19 seats.
C) Aircraft having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of more than 19 seats.


 

67. E03 ATP      
The weight and CG of an aircraft used in air taxi service must have been calculated from those values established by actual weighing of the aircraft within what period of time?
A) Multiengine aircraft, last 36 calendar months; single-engine, last 24 calendar months.
B) Multiengine and single-engine aircraft, preceding 36 calendar months.
C) Multiengine aircraft, preceding 36 calendar months.


 

68. E03 ATP      
What performance is required of a multiengine airplane with the critical engine inoperative, while carrying passengers for hire in IFR weather conditions?
A) Climb at least 100 ft/min at the highest MEA of the route to be flown or 5,000 feet MSL, whichever is higher.
B) Climb at least 50 ft/min at the MEA's of the route to be flown or 5,000 feet MSL, whichever is higher.
C) Climb at least 50 ft/min at the MEA's of the route to be flown or 5,000 feet AGL, whichever is higher.


 

69. E02 ATP      
Which is a requirement governing the carriage of carry-on baggage?
A) All carry-on baggage must be restrained so that its movement is prevented during air turbulence.
B) Pieces of carry-on baggage weighing more than 10 pounds must be carried in an approved rack or bin.
C) Carry-on baggage must be stowed under the seat in front of the owner.


 

70. E03 ATP      
When a crash ax is required equipment on an aircraft, where should it be located?
A) At a location accessible to both the crew and passengers during normal operations.
B) In the flight crew compartment.
C) At a location inaccessible to the passengers during normal operations.


 

71. E03 ATP      
How many, if any, approved first aid kits are required on an aircraft having a passenger seating configuration of 20 seats and a passenger load of 14?
A) Two.
B) One.
C) None.


 

72. E03 ATP      
Airborne weather radar equipment must be installed in large transport category aircraft, in the conterminous 48 United States,
A) that are engaged in passenger-carrying operations.
B) and be fully operational, although weather forecasts indicate no hazardous conditions.
C) that are engaged in either cargo or passenger-carrying operations.


 

73. E03 ATP      
Which performance requirement applies to passenger-carrying land airplanes being operated over water?
A) Multiengine airplanes must be able to climb, with the critical engine inoperative, at least 100 ft/min at 1,000 feet above the surface.
B) Single-engine airplanes must be operated at an altitude that will allow them to reach land in case of engine failure.
C) Multiengine airplanes must be able to climb, with the critical engine inoperative, at least 50 ft/min at 1,500 feet above the surface.


 

74. D21 ATP      
If a four-engine air carrier airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums, what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport?
A) Not more than 2 hours at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative.
B) Not more than 2 hours at cruise speed with one engine inoperative.
C) Not more than 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative.


 

75. D21 ATP      
The minimum weather conditions that must exist for an airport to be listed as an alternate in the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight are
A) those listed in the NOAA IAP charts for the alternate airport, from 1 hours before or after the ETA for that flight.
B) those listed in the NOAA IAP charts for the alternate airport, at the time the flight is expected to arrive.
C) those specified in the certificate holder's Operations Specifications for that airport, when the flight arrives.


 

76. D20 ATP      
Which passenger announcement(s) must be made after each takeoff?
A) How to use the passenger oxygen system and that there is a $1,000 fine for tampering with a smoke detector.
B) Keep safety belts fastened while seated and no smoking in the aircraft lavatories.
C) Passengers should keep seat belts fastened while seated.


 

77. D21 ATP      
An airport is not listed in a domestic Air Carrier's Operations Specifications and does not have the prescribed takeoff weather minimums. What are the minimum weather conditions required for takeoff?
A) 1000-1/2.
B) 900-1.
C) 800-2.


 

78. D21 ATP      
The minimum weather conditions that must exist for a domestic air carrier flight to take off from an airport that is not listed in the Air Carrier's Operations Specifications (takeoff minimums are not prescribed for that airport.) is
A) 1,000 - 1, 900 - 11/4, or 800 - 2.
B) 1,000 - 1, 900 - 11/2, or 800 - 2.
C) 800 - 2, 1,100 - 1, or 900 - 11/2.


 

79. D21 ATP      
What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane?
A) Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off.
B) Sweep off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth.
C) Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane.


 

80. D05 ATP      
Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with, under normal conditions, along the entire route (in either direction) of flight?
A) Appropriate dispatch office.
B) Any FSS.
C) ARINC.


 

81. D18 ATP      
How does deadhead transportation, going to or from a duty assignment, affect the computation of flight time limits for air carrier flight crewmembers? It is
A) not considered to be part of a rest period.
B) considered part of the rest period for flight engineers and navigators.
C) considered part of the rest period if the flightcrew includes more than two pilots.


 

82. D21 ATP      
A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground, at an intermediate airport. How long before a redispatch release is required?
A) Not more than 2 hours.
B) More than 6 hours.
C) Not more than 1 hour.


 

83. D20 ATP      
Each crewmember shall have readily available for individual use on each flight a
A) flashlight in good working order.
B) key to the flight deck door.
C) certificate holder's manual.


 

84. D20 ATP      
If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane, the pilot in command
A) may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport.
B) may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher.
C) must land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made.


 

85. D20 ATP      
An aircraft dispatcher declares an emergency for a flight and a deviation results. A written report shall be sent by the
A) dispatcher to the FAA Administrator within 10 days.
B) pilot in command to the FAA Administrator within 10 days.
C) air carrier's operations manager to the FAA Administrator within 10 days.


 

86. D20 ATP      
When the pilot in command is responsible for a deviation during an emergency, the pilot should submit a written report within
A) 10 days after returning home.
B) 10 days after the deviation.
C) 10 days after returning to home base.


 

87. D20 ATP      
Assuring that appropriate aeronautical charts are aboard an aircraft is the responsibility of the
A) flight navigator.
B) pilot in command.
C) aircraft dispatcher.


 

88. D20 ATP      
When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft, which of the following applies?
A) Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the passenger.
B) The passenger must have access to a seat in the pilot compartment.
C) The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew compartment.


 

89. D22 ATP      
The information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers and commercial operators that is not required in the dispatch release for flag and domestic air carriers is the
A) minimum fuel supply.
B) weather reports and forecasts.
C) names of all crewmembers.


 

90. D20 ATP      
Below what altitude, except when in cruise flight, are non-safety related cockpit activities by flight crewmembers prohibited?
A) FL 180.
B) 14,500 feet.
C) 10,000 feet.


 

91. D13 ATP      
Where is a list maintained for routes that require special navigation equipment?
A) International Flight Information Manual.
B) Air Carrier's Operations Specifications.
C) Airplane Flight Manual.


 

92. D21 ATP      
When a pilot's flight time consists of 80 hours' pilot in command in a particular type airplane, how does this affect the minimums for the destination airport?
A) Has no effect on destination but alternate minimums are no less than 300 and 1.
B) Minimums are increased by 100 feet and 1/2 mile.
C) Minimums are decreased by 100 feet and 1/2 mile.


 

93. I13 ATP      
(Refer to appendix 2, figures 115, 116, 117, 118, 118A, 118B, and 118C.)
At ARLIN Intersection, PTL 130 is notified that the Phoenix Sky Harbor Airport is closed. PTL 130 is told to proceed to Tucson. PTL 130 is operating under FAR Part 121. The PIC on PTL 130 has less than 100 hours as PIC in the B-727 (approach category C).
What are the PIC's minimums for the VOR RWY 11L approach at Tucson Intl Airport?
A) 2,960-1.
B) 2,860-1/2.
C) 2,900-1.


 

94. D21 ATP      
Under what conditions may an air carrier pilot continue an instrument approach to the DH, after receiving a weather report indicating that less than minimum published landing conditions exist at the airport?
A) If the instrument approach is conducted in a radar environment.
B) When the weather report is received after the pilot has begun the final approach segment of the instrument approach.
C) When the weather report is received as the pilot passes the FAF.


 

95. D21 ATP      
If a required instrument on a multiengine airpla