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06/09/2003
Bank: (Flight and Ground Instructor and Pilot Examiner)
Airman Knowledge Test Question Bank

 

The FAA computer-assisted testing system is supported by a series of supplement publications. These publications, available through several aviation publishers, include the graphics, legends, and maps that are needed to successfully respond to certain test items. Please download the file Supplements.pdf at the Internet address of http://afs600.faa.gov/ for a complete list of the associated supplement books.


 

1. L34 CFI      
Most midair collision accidents occur during
A) hazy days.
B) clear days.
C) cloudy nights.


 

2. L34 CFI      
The most effective technique to use for detecting other aircraft at night is to
A) turn the head and sweep the eyes rapidly over the entire visible region.
B) avoid staring directly at the point where another aircraft is suspected to be flying.
C) avoid scanning the region below the horizon so as to avoid the effect of ground lights on the eyes.


 

3. L34 CFI      
What is an effective way to prevent a collision hazard in the traffic pattern?
A) Enter the pattern in a descent.
B) Maintain the proper traffic pattern altitude and continually scan the area.
C) Rely on radio reports from other aircraft who may be operating in the traffic pattern.


 

4. B08 CFI      
A helicopter may be operated at less than the minimum safe altitudes prescribed by regulations for other aircraft if
A) the operation is conducted without hazard to persons or property.
B) an altitude of at least 500 feet is maintained over other than congested areas.
C) at least 500 feet is maintained above the highest obstacle within a radius of 1,000 feet.


 

5. B08 CFI      
While in flight, a steady red light directed at you from the control tower means
A) continue flight; airport unsafe, do not land.
B) give way to other aircraft; continue circling.
C) return for landing; expect steady green light at the appropriate time.


 

6. B08 CFI      
What is the correct departure procedure at a noncontrolled airport?
A) The FAA-approved departure procedure for that airport.
B) Make all left turns, except a 45° right turn on the first crosswind leg.
C) Departure in any direction consistent with safety, after crossing the airport boundary.


 

7. B08 CFI      
What minimum pilot certificate will permit a pilot to enter all Class B airspace?
A) Private Pilot Certificate.
B) Commercial Pilot Certificate.
C) Student Pilot Certificate with an appropriate endorsement.


 

8. B08 CFI      
What is the minimum fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane? Enough to fly to
A) the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 20 minutes at normal cruise speed.
B) the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruise speed.
C) the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruise speed.


 

9. B08 CFI      
To operate an aircraft over any congested area, a pilot should maintain an altitude of at least
A) 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet.
B) 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet.
C) 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet.


 

10. B08 CFI      
When operating VFR in Class B airspace, what are the visibility and cloud clearance requirements?
A) 3 SM visibility and clear of clouds.
B) 3 SM visibility, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal distance from clouds.
C) 1 SM visibility, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal distance from clouds.


 

11. B08 CFI      
Normally, the vertical limits of Class D airspace extend up to and including how many feet above the surface?
A) 2,500 feet.
B) 3,000 feet.
C) 4,000 feet.


 

12. B07 CFI      
A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding
A) 8 hours.
B) 12 hours.
C) 24 hours.


 

13. A26 CFI      
To endorse a student pilot's logbook for solo flight, an instructor is required, in part, to have
A) given that student cross-country flight training.
B) given that student flight training in the type of aircraft involved.
C) at least 5 hours of experience as pilot in command in the aircraft involved.


 

14. A26 CFI      
A Flight Instructor Certificate may be renewed by
A) passing both a knowledge and a practical test.
B) successfully completing a flight instructor refresher course within 3 calendar months prior to renewal.
C) providing a record of training showing evidence the applicant has given at least 80 hours of flight training in the last 24 months.


 

15. A27 CFI      
The holder of a Ground Instructor Certificate with an advanced rating is authorized to provide
A) a recommendation for an instrument rating knowledge test.
B) ground training for any flight review or instrument proficiency check.
C) ground training in aeronautical knowledge areas for any pilot certificate or rating.


 

16. B08 CFI      
A pilot in a multiengine land airplane is planning to practice IFR procedures under a hood in VMC conditions. The safety pilot must possess at least a
A) Recreational Pilot Certificate with an airplane rating.
B) Private Pilot Certificate with airplane multiengine land rating and a current medical certificate.
C) Private Pilot Certificate with airplane and instrument ratings, but a current medical certificate is not required.


 

17. B07 CFI      
An aircraft's operating limitations may be found in the
A) FAA-approved aircraft flight manual.
B) owner's handbook published by the aircraft manufacturer.
C) aircraft flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.


 

18. B08 CFI      
Which preflight action is required for every flight?
A) Check weather reports and forecasts.
B) Determine runway length at airports of intended use.
C) Determine alternatives if the flight cannot be completed.


 

19. B08 CFI      
Which statement is true regarding the use of seatbelts and shoulder harnesses?
A) Crewmembers must keep seatbelts and shoulder harnesses fastened at all times during movement on the surface.
B) The pilot in command must ensure that each person on board an aircraft is briefed on how to fasten and unfasten seatbelts.
C) Passengers must keep seatbelts fastened at all times during movement on the surface but use of shoulder harnesses is optional.


 

20. B08 CFI      
If on a night flight, the pilot of aircraft A observes only the green wingtip light of aircraft B, and the airplanes are converging, which aircraft has the right-of-way?
A) Aircraft A; it is to the left of aircraft B.
B) Aircraft B; it is to the right of aircraft A.
C) Aircraft A; it is to the right of aircraft B.


 

21. B08 CFI      
An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane's position, which aircraft has the right of way?
A) The airship.
B) The airplane.
C) Each should alter course to the right.


 

22. B08 CFI      
When flying beneath the lateral limits of Class B airspace, the maximum indicated airspeed authorized is
A) 156 knots.
B) 200 knots.
C) 250 knots.


 

23. B07 CFI      
If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, a pilot in command may
A) deviate from FAR's to the extent required to meet that emergency.
B) not deviate from FAR's unless permission is obtained from air traffic control.
C) deviate from FAR's to the extent required to meet the emergency, but must submit a written report to the Administrator within 24 hours.


 

24. B13 CFI      
An aircraft operated for hire with passengers aboard has a 100-hour inspection performed after 90 hours in service. The next 100-hour inspection would be due after
A) 90 hours' time in service.
B) 100 hours' time in service.
C) 110 hours' time in service.


 

25. B08 CFI      
Which is required to operate a helicopter within Class E airspace between sunset and sunrise under special VFR?
A) The pilot must possess an instrument rating and have satisfied currency requirements.
B) The helicopter must be equipped for instrument flight and the visibility must be at least 1 mile.
C) The helicopter must be operated at a speed that allows the pilot the opportunity to see and avoid other traffic or obstructions.


 

26. B11 CFI      
What are the requirements, if any, to overfly Class C airspace?
A) None, provided the flight remains above the airspace ceiling.
B) Transponder with automatic altitude reporting capability is required above the airspace ceiling and upward to 10,000 feet MSL.
C) Two-way radio communications must be established with ATC and transponder must be operating at all times.


 

27. B12 CFI      
What is the minimum altitude and flight visibility required for acrobatic flight?
A) 1,500 feet AGL and 5 miles.
B) 1,500 feet AGL and 3 miles.
C) 3,000 feet AGL and 3 miles.


 

28. B13 CFI      
Assuring compliance with airworthiness directives is the responsibility of the
A) FAA certificated mechanic.
B) pilot in command of the aircraft.
C) owner or operator of the aircraft.


 

29. B13 CFI      
If an aircraft's operation in flight was substantially affected by an alteration or repair, the aircraft documents must show that it was test flown and approved for return to service by an appropriately rated pilot prior to being flown
A) with passengers aboard.
B) for compensation or hire.
C) by instructors and students.


 

30. B13 CFI      
If an ATC transponder installed in an aircraft has not been tested, inspected, and found to comply with regulations within a specified period, what is the limitation on its use?
A) Its use is not permitted.
B) It may be used anywhere except in Class A and B airspace.
C) It may be used for VFR flight but not for IFR flight.


 

31. B13 CFI      
A new maintenance record being used for an aircraft engine rebuilt by the manufacturer must include the previous
A) operating hours of the engine.
B) annual inspections performed on the engine.
C) changes required by airworthiness directives.


 

32. D12 CFI      
Information recorded during normal operation by a required cockpit voice recorder in a passenger-carrying airplane
A) may be erased only once each flight.
B) may all be erased except the last 30 minutes.
C) must be retained for 30 minutes after landing.


 

33. G10 CFI      
The NTSB defines a serious injury as any injury which
A) causes severe tendon damage.
B) results in a simple fracture of the nose.
C) involves first degree burns over 5 percent of the body.


 

34. G11 CFI      
If an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage to the aircraft, the nearest NTSB field office shall be notified
A) immediately.
B) within 7 days.
C) within 10 days.


 

35. B13 CFI      
An aircraft's last annual inspection was performed on July 12, this year. The next annual inspection will be due no later than
A) July 13, next year.
B) July 31, next year.
C) 12 calendar months after the date shown on the Airworthiness Certificate.


 

36. B08 CFI      
While in Class E airspace in VFR conditions, what in-flight visibility is required when flying more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL?
A) 5 SM.
B) 3 SM.
C) 1 SM.


 

37. B08 CFI      
What minimum flight visibility is required when flying a glider above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL?
A) 3 SM.
B) 5 NM.
C) 5 SM.


 

38. B08 CFI      
When operating an airplane within Class D airspace under special VFR, the flight visibility is required to be at least
A) 3 SM.
B) 2 SM.
C) 1 SM.


 

39. B11 CFI      
How long before the proposed operation should a request be submitted to the controlling ATC facility to operate in Class C airspace without the required altitude reporting transponder?
A) 1 hour.
B) 8 hours.
C) 24 hours.


 

40. B11 CFI      
Regarding certificates and documents, no person may operate an aircraft unless it has within it an
A) Airworthiness Certificate and minimum equipment list (MEL).
B) Airworthiness Certificate, aircraft and engine logbooks, and owner's handbook.
C) Airworthiness Certificate, Registration Certificate, and approved flight manual.


 

41. B11 CFI      
When an aircraft is being flown over water, under what circumstance must approved flotation gear be readily available to each occupant?
A) At night and beyond gliding distance from shore.
B) Anytime the aircraft is beyond power-off gliding distance from shore
C) When operating for hire beyond power-off gliding distance from shore.


 

42. B11 CFI      
How long may an aircraft be operated after the emergency locator transmitter has been initially removed for maintenance?
A) 90 days.
B) 30 days.
C) 7 days.


 

43. B11 CFI      
Position lights are required to be displayed on all aircraft in flight from
A) sunset to sunrise.
B) 1 hour before sunset to 1 hour after sunrise.
C) 30 minutes before sunrise to 30 minutes after sunset.


 

44. B11 CFI      
Which cabin pressure altitude allows a pilot to operate an aircraft up to 30 minutes without supplemental oxygen?
A) 12,500 feet MSL.
B) 12,600 feet MSL.
C) 14,100 feet MSL.


 

45. B11 CFI      
The primary purpose of a minimum equipment list (MEL) is to
A) provide a list of equipment that must be operational at all times on the aircraft.
B) list the equipment that can be inoperative and still not affect the airworthiness of an aircraft.
C) list the minimum equipment that must be installed in all aircraft as required by airworthiness directives.


 

46. A20 CFI      
What flight time must be recorded by a pilot exercising the privileges of a commercial certificate?
A) All flight time.
B) Only the flight time necessary to meet the recent flight experience requirements.
C) All flight time flown for hire with passengers and/or cargo aboard the aircraft.


 

47. A20 CFI      
What instrument flight time may be logged by a second in command of an aircraft requiring two pilots?
A) One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan.
B) One-half the time the aircraft is in actual instrument conditions.
C) All of the time the second in command is controlling the aircraft solely by reference to flight instruments.


 

48. A20 CFI      
A flight review will consist of
A) a minimum of 1 hour ground training and 1 hour flight training.
B) at least 1 hour of flight time to include at least three takeoffs and landings.
C) three takeoffs and landings and a review of those maneuvers necessary for the pilot to demonstrate the appropriate pilot privileges.


 

49. A150 CFI      
If the certification category of an airplane is listed as 'utility,' it means the airplane is intended for which maneuvers?
A) Any type of acrobatic maneuver.
B) All nonacrobatic maneuvers plus limited acrobatics including spins.
C) Any maneuver incident to normal flying except acrobatics or spins.


 

50. A20 CFI      
If recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and official sunset is 1830, the latest time passengers may be carried is
A) 1829.
B) 1859.
C) 1929.


 

51. A21 CFI      
A person seeking a private pilot glider rating is exempt from taking the knowledge test if that person
A) holds a rating for powered aircraft.
B) holds a pilot certificate for any category.
C) has taken a knowledge test for any powered rating within the preceding 24 months.


 

52. A22 CFI      
An applicant who is seeking a Student Pilot Certificate limited to helicopters is required to be at least how old?
A) 16 years.
B) 17 years.
C) 18 years.


 

53. A20 CFI      
To act as pilot in command of an airplane with retractable landing gear, flaps, and controllable prop, a person holding a Private or Commercial Pilot Certificate is required to
A) complete a practical test in such an airplane.
B) have made at least three takeoffs and landings in such an airplane in the last 90 days.
C) receive ground and flight training in such an airplane, and obtain a logbook endorsement of proficiency.


 

54. A20 CFI      
What recent flight experience must be met before a commercial airplane pilot may fly solo in an airplane?
A) Three takeoffs and three landings within the preceding 90 days in an airplane.
B) Satisfactorily accomplished a flight review in any aircraft for which rated within the preceding 24 calendar months.
C) Satisfactorily accomplished a flight review within the preceding 24 calendar months, but this review must be in an airplane.


 

55. A20 CFI      
What minimum documentation is required to take an FAA knowledge test for any flight instructor rating?
A) Proper identification.
B) Proof of satisfactory completion of the appropriate ground training or home study course.
C) Authorization from an FAA inspector who has verified and endorsed the applicant's training record.


 

56. A20 CFI      
A Third-Class Medical Certificate was issued on May 3 to a person over 40 years of age. To exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid through
A) May 3, 24 months later.
B) May 31, 24 months later.
C) May 31, 36 months later.


 

57. A20 CFI      
To act as pilot in command of an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower, a person holding a Private or Commercial Pilot Certificate is required to
A) successfully complete a practical test in such an airplane.
B) receive ground and flight training in an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower.
C) make three takeoffs and landings with an authorized instructor in an airplane of the same make and model.


 

58. A20 CFI      
What is the duration of a Student Pilot Certificate?
A) Indefinite.
B) 12 calendar months from the month in which it was issued.
C) 24 calendar months from the month in which it was issued.


 

59. A26 CFI      
The type and date of each student pilot endorsement given shall be maintained by each flight instructor. For what period of time is this record required to be retained?
A) 1 year.
B) 2 years.
C) 3 years.


 

60. A20 CFI      
A flight instructor applicant must demonstrate spins in an airplane or glider when
A) the practical test for initial certification is being given.
B) being retested for deficiencies in instructional proficiency on stall awareness or spins demonstrated during an initial test.
C) the airplane or glider to be used for the practical test is certificated for spins and the applicant is being given an initial practical test.


 

61. A20 CFI      
To act as pilot in command of a glider using aerotow procedures, a person must have
A) received 5 hours of ground and flight training on aerotow procedures and operations in a glider, and completed a practical test.
B) received ground and flight training on aerotow procedures and operations in a glider, and received an endorsement from an authorized instructor certifying proficiency.
C) made three solo takeoffs in a glider of the same make and model using aerotow procedures, and received an endorsement from an authorized instructor certifying proficiency in the procedures.


 

62. A20 CFI      
What action may be taken against a person whom the Administrator finds has cheated on a knowledge test?
A) Any certificate or rating held by the person may be suspended or revoked.
B) That person will be required to wait 24 months before taking another knowledge test.
C) That person may be required to wait a maximum of 6 months before applying for any other certificate or rating.


 

63. A20 CFI      
What class medical certificate, if any, is required for a person adding a rating to a pilot certificate?
A) None.
B) Second-Class.
C) Third-Class.


 

64. A20 CFI      
An applicant who holds a Commercial Pilot Certificate with ASEL ratings is seeking a MEL rating at the commercial level. On August 1, 2000, the applicant shows you a second class medical dated January 2, 1999. May the applicant take the practical test?
A) No.
B) Yes.
C) Yes, but at the private pilot skill level.


 

65. A20 CFI      
A person whose Flight Instructor Certificate has been suspended may not
A) give flight training, but may apply for a rating to be added to that certificate.
B) apply for any rating to be added to that certificate during the period of suspension.
C) apply for any Flight Instructor Certificate for a period of 1 year after the date of the suspension.


 

66. A20 CFI      
An applicant has failed a knowledge test for the second time. With training and an endorsement from an authorized instructor, when may the applicant apply for a retest?
A) immediately.
B) After 5 days.
C) After 30 days.


 

67. A29 CFI      
A recreational pilot with less than 400 hours' flight time may not act as pilot in command unless the pilot has
A) logged pilot-in-command time in the last 90 days.
B) logged pilot-in-command time in the last 180 days.
C) received flight instruction from an instructor who certifies the pilot is competent to conduct flights beyond 50 miles.


 

68. A23 CFI      
Your student, who is preparing for a Private Pilot practical test in a single-engine airplane, received 3.5 hours of cross-country flight training including flights of 1.9 hours, 1.0 hours, and .6 hours. Is your student eligible to take the practical test?
A) No.
B) Yes.
C) Yes but, if test is satisfactory, certificate will have an ICAO limitation on it.


 

69. A01 CFI      
A 'stopway' can be defined as an area
A) designated for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff.
B) not as wide as the runway but capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff.
C) at least the same width as the runway capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff.


 

70. A23 CFI      
What night flight training is required for an unrestricted Private Pilot Certificate with an airplane rating?
A) 3 hours to include 10 takeoffs and 10 landings and one cross-country flight of over 100 nautical miles.
B) 3 hours to include five takeoffs and five landings (each landing from a traffic pattern).
C) 1 hour to include three takeoffs and three landings.


 

71. A24 CFI      
As pilot, how much gyroplane flight time should an applicant have for a Commercial Pilot Certificate with a gyroplane rating?
A) 150 hours.
B) 100 hours.
C) 25 hours.


 

72. A23 CFI      
What flight time is required for a Private Pilot Certificate with a helicopter rating?
A) A minimum of 40 hours, 19 hours of which must be in helicopters.
B) A minimum of 40 hours in helicopters with at least 15 hours of solo time.
C) A minimum of 40 hours including at least 15 hours of flight training in helicopters.


 

73. A20 CFI      
To be eligible for a Commercial Pilot Certificate, one of the requirements is for the applicant to hold at least a valid
A) First-Class Medical Certificate.
B) Second-Class Medical Certificate.
C) Third-Class Medical Certificate.


 

74. A24 CFI      
Under FAR Part 61, a commercial pilot-airplane applicant is required to have a minimum of how much cross-country experience?
A) 30 hours.
B) 40 hours.
C) 50 hours.


 

75. A22 CFI      
Prior to a first solo flight, the flight instructor is required to endorse the student's
A) logbook.
B) pilot certificate.
C) logbook and pilot certificate.


 

76. A01 CFI      
Regulations concerning the operational control of a flight refer to
A) the specific duties of any required crewmember.
B) exercising the privileges of pilot in command of an aircraft.
C) exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight.


 

77. A22 CFI      
Who is responsible for administering the required knowledge test to a student pilot prior to solo flight?
A) Any certificated flight instructor.
B) Any certificated ground instructor.
C) The student's authorized instructor.


 

78. A26 CFI      
What requirement(s) must an authorized instructor meet in order to prepare a glider applicant for an initial Flight Instructor Certificate rating?
A) Held a Flight Instructor Certificate for 24 months or given 200 hours of flight training.
B) Held a Flight Instructor Certificate for 12 months and given a minimum of 80 hours of training.
C) Held a Flight Instructor Certificate for at least 24 months and given a minimum of 80 hours of glider training.


 

79. A22 CFI      
A student pilot may not operate a balloon in initial solo flight unless that pilot has
A) received a minimum of 5 hours' flight instruction in a balloon.
B) a valid Student Pilot Certificate and logbook endorsement by an authorized flight instructor.
C) made at least 10 balloon flights under the supervision of an authorized flight instructor.


 

80. A01 CFI      
Which is a definition of the term 'crewmember'?
A) A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time.
B) Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer.
C) Only a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time.


 

81. A22 CFI      
One requirement for a student pilot to be authorized to make a solo cross-country flight is an endorsement
A) in the student's logbook that the instructor has given the student cross-country instruction in the model of aircraft to be used.
B) in the student's logbook that the preflight planning and preparation has been reviewed and the student is prepared to make the flight safely.
C) on the Student Pilot Certificate stating the student is competent to make cross-country flights in the category, class, and type of aircraft involved.


 

82. A01 CFI      
Which is the correct symbol for the minimum steady flight speed at which an airplane is controllable?
A) Vs.
B) Vs1.
C) Vso.


 

83. A22 CFI      
To operate an aircraft on a solo flight within Class B airspace, a student must have a logbook endorsement showing that he/she has
A) received flight instruction from any authorized flight instructor on operating within Class B airspace.
B) received ground instruction on and flight instruction in that specific airspace for which solo flight is authorized.
C) within the preceding 90 days, been found to be competent by any flight instructor having knowledge of the student's experience in that specific airspace.


 

84. I30 CFI      
Hail, an in-flight hazard, is most likely to be associated with
A) cumulus clouds.
B) stratocumulus clouds.
C) cumulonimbus clouds.


 

85. I31 CFI      
Radiation fog is most likely to occur under what conditions?
A) Warm, moist air being forced upslope by light winds resulting in the air being cooled and condensed.
B) High humidity during the early evening, cool cloudless night with light winds, and favorable topography.
C) Low temperature/dewpoint spread, calm wind conditions, the presence of hydroscopic nuclei, low overcast, and favorable topography.


 

86. I31 CFI      
One condition necessary for the formation of fog is
A) calm air.
B) visible moisture.
C) high relative humidity.


 

87. I64 CFI      
(Refer to figure 14.) How are Significant Weather Prognostic Charts best used by a pilot?
A) For overall planning at all altitudes.
B) For determining areas to avoid (freezing levels and turbulence).
C) For analyzing current frontal activity and cloud coverage.


 

88. I30 CFI      
Select the true statement pertaining to the life cycle of a thunderstorm.
A) The initial stage of a thunderstorm is always indicated by the development of a nimbus cloud.
B) The beginning of rain at the Earth's surface indicates the mature stage of the thunderstorm.
C) The beginning of rain at the Earth's surface indicates the dissipating stage of the thunderstorm.


 

89. I28 CFI      
Consider the following statements about mountain waves:
1. Mountain waves always develop in a series on the upwind (windward) side of mountain ridges.
2. In a mountain wave, the air dips sharply downward immediately to the lee side of a ridge, before rising and falling in a wave motion for a considerable distance downstream.
3. If the air is humid and the wave is of large amplitude, lenticular (lens-shaped) clouds mark the wave's crest.
4. In a typical wave, the greatest amplitude is seldom more than 1,000 feet above the ridge crest elevation.
From the statements above, select those which are true.
A) 2 and 3.
B) 1, 2, and 3.
C) 1, 3, and 4.


 

90. I28 CFI      
When flying low over hilly terrain, ridges, or mountain ranges, the greatest potential danger from turbulent air currents will usually be encountered on the
A) leeward side when flying with the wind.
B) leeward side when flying into the wind.
C) windward side when flying into the wind.


 

91. I28 CFI      
Low-level wind shear, which results in a sudden change of wind direction, may occur
A) after a warm front has passed.
B) when surface winds are light and variable.
C) when there is a low-level temperature inversion with strong winds above the inversion.


 

92. I28 CFI      
Which condition could be expected if a strong temperature inversion exists near the surface?
A) Strong, steady downdrafts and an increase in OAT.
B) A wind shear with the possibility of a sudden loss of airspeed.
C) An OAT increase or decrease with a constant wind condition.


 

93. I29 CFI      
The most rapid accumulation of clear ice on an aircraft in flight may occur with temperatures between 0 °C to -15 °C in
A) cumuliform clouds.
B) stratiform clouds.
C) any clouds or dry snow.


 

94. I30 CFI      
What are the minimum requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm?
A) Sufficient moisture and a lifting action.
B) Sufficient moisture, an unstable lapse rate, and lifting action.
C) Towering cumulus clouds, sufficient moisture, and a frontal zone.


 

95. I30 CFI      
What feature is associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?
A) Frequent lightning.
B) Continuous updrafts.
C) Beginning of rain at the surface.


 

96. I35 CFI      
Which is true regarding the development of convective circulation?
A) Cool air must sink to force the warm air upward.
B) Warm air is less dense and rises on its own accord.
C) Cool air surrounding convective circulation sinks at a greater rate than the warmer air rises (within the thermal), thus forcing the warmer air upward.


 

97. I30 CFI      
A squall line is usually associated with a
A) stationary front.
B) fast-moving cold front.
C) fast-moving warm front.


 

98. I30 CFI      
Consider the following statements regarding hail as an in-flight hazard and select those which are correct.
1. There is a correlation between the visual appearance of thunderstorms and the amount of hail within them.
2 Large hail is most commonly found in thunderstorms which have strong updrafts and large liquid water content.
3 Hail may be found at any level within a thunderstorm but not in the clear air outside of the storm cloud.
4 Hail is usually produced during the mature stage of the thunderstorm's lifespan.
5 Hailstones may be thrown upward and outward from a storm cloud for several miles.
The true statements are:
A) 2, 4, and 5.
B) 1, 2, and 3.
C) 1, 2, 4, and 5.


 

99. I29 CFI      
Which is an operational consideration regarding aircraft structural icing?
A) It is unnecessary for an aircraft to fly through rain or cloud droplets for structural ice to form.
B) Clear ice is most likely to form on an airplane when flying through stratified clouds or light drizzle.