|
06/09/2003
Bank: (Flight and Ground Instructor and Pilot Examiner)
Airman Knowledge Test Question Bank
| The FAA computer-assisted testing system is supported by a series of
supplement publications. These publications, available through several
aviation publishers, include the graphics, legends, and maps that are needed
to successfully respond to certain test items. Please download the file
Supplements.pdf at the Internet address of
http://afs600.faa.gov/ for a complete list of the associated supplement
books. |
| 1. |
L34 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| Most
midair collision accidents occur during |
| A) hazy
days. |
| B) clear
days. |
| C)
cloudy nights. |
| 2. |
L34 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| The most
effective technique to use for detecting other aircraft at night is to |
| A) turn
the head and sweep the eyes rapidly over the entire visible region. |
| B) avoid
staring directly at the point where another aircraft is suspected to be
flying. |
| C) avoid
scanning the region below the horizon so as to avoid the effect of ground
lights on the eyes. |
| 3. |
L34 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| What is
an effective way to prevent a collision hazard in the traffic pattern? |
| A) Enter
the pattern in a descent. |
| B)
Maintain the proper traffic pattern altitude and continually scan the area. |
| C) Rely
on radio reports from other aircraft who may be operating in the traffic
pattern. |
| 4. |
B08 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| A
helicopter may be operated at less than the minimum safe altitudes
prescribed by regulations for other aircraft if |
| A) the
operation is conducted without hazard to persons or property. |
| B) an
altitude of at least 500 feet is maintained over other than congested areas. |
| C) at
least 500 feet is maintained above the highest obstacle within a radius of
1,000 feet. |
| 5. |
B08 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| While in
flight, a steady red light directed at you from the control tower means |
| A)
continue flight; airport unsafe, do not land. |
| B) give
way to other aircraft; continue circling. |
| C)
return for landing; expect steady green light at the appropriate time. |
| 6. |
B08 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| What is
the correct departure procedure at a noncontrolled airport? |
| A) The
FAA-approved departure procedure for that airport. |
| B) Make
all left turns, except a 45° right turn on the first crosswind leg. |
| C)
Departure in any direction consistent with safety, after crossing the
airport boundary. |
| 7. |
B08 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| What
minimum pilot certificate will permit a pilot to enter all Class B airspace? |
| A)
Private Pilot Certificate. |
| B)
Commercial Pilot Certificate. |
| C)
Student Pilot Certificate with an appropriate endorsement. |
| 8. |
B08 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| What is
the minimum fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane?
Enough to fly to |
| A) the
first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 20 minutes at
normal cruise speed. |
| B) the
first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at
normal cruise speed. |
| C) the
first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at
normal cruise speed. |
| 9. |
B08 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| To
operate an aircraft over any congested area, a pilot should maintain an
altitude of at least |
| A) 500
feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet. |
| B) 1,000
feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet. |
| C) 2,000
feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet. |
| 10. |
B08 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| When
operating VFR in Class B airspace, what are the visibility and cloud
clearance requirements? |
| A) 3 SM
visibility and clear of clouds. |
| B) 3 SM
visibility, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal
distance from clouds. |
| C) 1 SM
visibility, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal
distance from clouds. |
| 11. |
B08 |
CFI |
|
|
|
|
Normally, the vertical limits of Class D airspace extend up to and including
how many feet above the surface? |
| A) 2,500
feet. |
| B) 3,000
feet. |
| C) 4,000
feet. |
| 12. |
B07 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| A person
may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have
been consumed by that person within the preceding |
| A) 8
hours. |
| B) 12
hours. |
| C) 24
hours. |
| 13. |
A26 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| To
endorse a student pilot's logbook for solo flight, an instructor is
required, in part, to have |
| A) given
that student cross-country flight training. |
| B) given
that student flight training in the type of aircraft involved. |
| C) at
least 5 hours of experience as pilot in command in the aircraft involved. |
| 14. |
A26 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| A Flight
Instructor Certificate may be renewed by |
| A)
passing both a knowledge and a practical test. |
| B)
successfully completing a flight instructor refresher course within 3
calendar months prior to renewal. |
| C)
providing a record of training showing evidence the applicant has given at
least 80 hours of flight training in the last 24 months. |
| 15. |
A27 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| The
holder of a Ground Instructor Certificate with an advanced rating is
authorized to provide |
| A) a
recommendation for an instrument rating knowledge test. |
| B)
ground training for any flight review or instrument proficiency check. |
| C)
ground training in aeronautical knowledge areas for any pilot certificate or
rating. |
| 16. |
B08 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| A pilot
in a multiengine land airplane is planning to practice IFR procedures under
a hood in VMC conditions. The safety pilot must possess at least a |
| A)
Recreational Pilot Certificate with an airplane rating. |
| B)
Private Pilot Certificate with airplane multiengine land rating and a
current medical certificate. |
| C)
Private Pilot Certificate with airplane and instrument ratings, but a
current medical certificate is not required. |
| 17. |
B07 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| An
aircraft's operating limitations may be found in the |
| A)
FAA-approved aircraft flight manual. |
| B)
owner's handbook published by the aircraft manufacturer. |
| C)
aircraft flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or
any combination thereof. |
| 18. |
B08 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| Which
preflight action is required for every flight? |
| A) Check
weather reports and forecasts. |
| B)
Determine runway length at airports of intended use. |
| C)
Determine alternatives if the flight cannot be completed. |
| 19. |
B08 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| Which
statement is true regarding the use of seatbelts and shoulder harnesses? |
| A)
Crewmembers must keep seatbelts and shoulder harnesses fastened at all times
during movement on the surface. |
| B) The
pilot in command must ensure that each person on board an aircraft is
briefed on how to fasten and unfasten seatbelts. |
| C)
Passengers must keep seatbelts fastened at all times during movement on the
surface but use of shoulder harnesses is optional. |
| 20. |
B08 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| If on a
night flight, the pilot of aircraft A observes only the green wingtip light
of aircraft B, and the airplanes are converging, which aircraft has the
right-of-way? |
| A)
Aircraft A; it is to the left of aircraft B. |
| B)
Aircraft B; it is to the right of aircraft A. |
| C)
Aircraft A; it is to the right of aircraft B. |
| 21. |
B08 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| An
airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the
airplane's position, which aircraft has the right of way? |
| A) The
airship. |
| B) The
airplane. |
| C) Each
should alter course to the right. |
| 22. |
B08 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| When
flying beneath the lateral limits of Class B airspace, the maximum indicated
airspeed authorized is |
| A) 156
knots. |
| B) 200
knots. |
| C) 250
knots. |
| 23. |
B07 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| If an
in-flight emergency requires immediate action, a pilot in command may |
| A)
deviate from FAR's to the extent required to meet that emergency. |
| B) not
deviate from FAR's unless permission is obtained from air traffic control. |
| C)
deviate from FAR's to the extent required to meet the emergency, but must
submit a written report to the Administrator within 24 hours. |
| 24. |
B13 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| An
aircraft operated for hire with passengers aboard has a 100-hour inspection
performed after 90 hours in service. The next 100-hour inspection would be
due after |
| A) 90
hours' time in service. |
| B) 100
hours' time in service. |
| C) 110
hours' time in service. |
| 25. |
B08 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| Which is
required to operate a helicopter within Class E airspace between sunset and
sunrise under special VFR? |
| A) The
pilot must possess an instrument rating and have satisfied currency
requirements. |
| B) The
helicopter must be equipped for instrument flight and the visibility must be
at least 1 mile. |
| C) The
helicopter must be operated at a speed that allows the pilot the opportunity
to see and avoid other traffic or obstructions. |
| 26. |
B11 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| What are
the requirements, if any, to overfly Class C airspace? |
| A) None,
provided the flight remains above the airspace ceiling. |
| B)
Transponder with automatic altitude reporting capability is required above
the airspace ceiling and upward to 10,000 feet MSL. |
| C)
Two-way radio communications must be established with ATC and transponder
must be operating at all times. |
| 27. |
B12 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| What is
the minimum altitude and flight visibility required for acrobatic flight? |
| A) 1,500
feet AGL and 5 miles. |
| B) 1,500
feet AGL and 3 miles. |
| C) 3,000
feet AGL and 3 miles. |
| 28. |
B13 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| Assuring
compliance with airworthiness directives is the responsibility of the |
| A) FAA
certificated mechanic. |
| B) pilot
in command of the aircraft. |
| C) owner
or operator of the aircraft. |
| 29. |
B13 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| If an
aircraft's operation in flight was substantially affected by an alteration
or repair, the aircraft documents must show that it was test flown and
approved for return to service by an appropriately rated pilot prior to
being flown |
| A) with
passengers aboard. |
| B) for
compensation or hire. |
| C) by
instructors and students. |
| 30. |
B13 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| If an
ATC transponder installed in an aircraft has not been tested, inspected, and
found to comply with regulations within a specified period, what is the
limitation on its use? |
| A) Its
use is not permitted. |
| B) It
may be used anywhere except in Class A and B airspace. |
| C) It
may be used for VFR flight but not for IFR flight. |
| 31. |
B13 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| A new
maintenance record being used for an aircraft engine rebuilt by the
manufacturer must include the previous |
| A)
operating hours of the engine. |
| B)
annual inspections performed on the engine. |
| C)
changes required by airworthiness directives. |
| 32. |
D12 |
CFI |
|
|
|
|
Information recorded during normal operation by a required cockpit voice
recorder in a passenger-carrying airplane |
| A) may
be erased only once each flight. |
| B) may
all be erased except the last 30 minutes. |
| C) must
be retained for 30 minutes after landing. |
| 33. |
G10 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| The NTSB
defines a serious injury as any injury which |
| A)
causes severe tendon damage. |
| B)
results in a simple fracture of the nose. |
| C)
involves first degree burns over 5 percent of the body. |
| 34. |
G11 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| If an
aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage to
the aircraft, the nearest NTSB field office shall be notified |
| A)
immediately. |
| B)
within 7 days. |
| C)
within 10 days. |
| 35. |
B13 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| An
aircraft's last annual inspection was performed on July 12, this year. The
next annual inspection will be due no later than |
| A) July
13, next year. |
| B) July
31, next year. |
| C) 12
calendar months after the date shown on the Airworthiness Certificate. |
| 36. |
B08 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| While in
Class E airspace in VFR conditions, what in-flight visibility is required
when flying more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL? |
| A) 5 SM. |
| B) 3 SM. |
| C) 1 SM. |
| 37. |
B08 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| What
minimum flight visibility is required when flying a glider above 10,000 feet
MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL? |
| A) 3 SM. |
| B) 5 NM. |
| C) 5 SM. |
| 38. |
B08 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| When
operating an airplane within Class D airspace under special VFR, the flight
visibility is required to be at least |
| A) 3 SM. |
| B) 2 SM. |
| C) 1 SM. |
| 39. |
B11 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| How long
before the proposed operation should a request be submitted to the
controlling ATC facility to operate in Class C airspace without the required
altitude reporting transponder? |
| A) 1
hour. |
| B) 8
hours. |
| C) 24
hours. |
| 40. |
B11 |
CFI |
|
|
|
|
Regarding certificates and documents, no person may operate an aircraft
unless it has within it an |
| A)
Airworthiness Certificate and minimum equipment list (MEL). |
| B)
Airworthiness Certificate, aircraft and engine logbooks, and owner's
handbook. |
| C)
Airworthiness Certificate, Registration Certificate, and approved flight
manual. |
| 41. |
B11 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| When an
aircraft is being flown over water, under what circumstance must approved
flotation gear be readily available to each occupant? |
| A) At
night and beyond gliding distance from shore. |
| B)
Anytime the aircraft is beyond power-off gliding distance from shore |
| C) When
operating for hire beyond power-off gliding distance from shore. |
| 42. |
B11 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| How long
may an aircraft be operated after the emergency locator transmitter has been
initially removed for maintenance? |
| A) 90
days. |
| B) 30
days. |
| C) 7
days. |
| 43. |
B11 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| Position
lights are required to be displayed on all aircraft in flight from |
| A)
sunset to sunrise. |
| B) 1
hour before sunset to 1 hour after sunrise. |
| C) 30
minutes before sunrise to 30 minutes after sunset. |
| 44. |
B11 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| Which
cabin pressure altitude allows a pilot to operate an aircraft up to 30
minutes without supplemental oxygen? |
| A)
12,500 feet MSL. |
| B)
12,600 feet MSL. |
| C)
14,100 feet MSL. |
| 45. |
B11 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| The
primary purpose of a minimum equipment list (MEL) is to |
| A)
provide a list of equipment that must be operational at all times on the
aircraft. |
| B) list
the equipment that can be inoperative and still not affect the airworthiness
of an aircraft. |
| C) list
the minimum equipment that must be installed in all aircraft as required by
airworthiness directives. |
| 46. |
A20 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| What
flight time must be recorded by a pilot exercising the privileges of a
commercial certificate? |
| A) All
flight time. |
| B) Only
the flight time necessary to meet the recent flight experience requirements. |
| C) All
flight time flown for hire with passengers and/or cargo aboard the aircraft. |
| 47. |
A20 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| What
instrument flight time may be logged by a second in command of an aircraft
requiring two pilots? |
| A)
One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan. |
| B)
One-half the time the aircraft is in actual instrument conditions. |
| C) All
of the time the second in command is controlling the aircraft solely by
reference to flight instruments. |
| 48. |
A20 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| A flight
review will consist of |
| A) a
minimum of 1 hour ground training and 1 hour flight training. |
| B) at
least 1 hour of flight time to include at least three takeoffs and landings. |
| C) three
takeoffs and landings and a review of those maneuvers necessary for the
pilot to demonstrate the appropriate pilot privileges. |
| 49. |
A150 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| If the
certification category of an airplane is listed as 'utility,' it means the
airplane is intended for which maneuvers? |
| A) Any
type of acrobatic maneuver. |
| B) All
nonacrobatic maneuvers plus limited acrobatics including spins. |
| C) Any
maneuver incident to normal flying except acrobatics or spins. |
| 50. |
A20 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| If
recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and official
sunset is 1830, the latest time passengers may be carried is |
| A) 1829. |
| B) 1859. |
| C) 1929. |
| 51. |
A21 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| A person
seeking a private pilot glider rating is exempt from taking the knowledge
test if that person |
| A) holds
a rating for powered aircraft. |
| B) holds
a pilot certificate for any category. |
| C) has
taken a knowledge test for any powered rating within the preceding 24
months. |
| 52. |
A22 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| An
applicant who is seeking a Student Pilot Certificate limited to helicopters
is required to be at least how old? |
| A) 16
years. |
| B) 17
years. |
| C) 18
years. |
| 53. |
A20 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| To act
as pilot in command of an airplane with retractable landing gear, flaps, and
controllable prop, a person holding a Private or Commercial Pilot
Certificate is required to |
| A)
complete a practical test in such an airplane. |
| B) have
made at least three takeoffs and landings in such an airplane in the last 90
days. |
| C)
receive ground and flight training in such an airplane, and obtain a logbook
endorsement of proficiency. |
| 54. |
A20 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| What
recent flight experience must be met before a commercial airplane pilot may
fly solo in an airplane? |
| A) Three
takeoffs and three landings within the preceding 90 days in an airplane. |
| B)
Satisfactorily accomplished a flight review in any aircraft for which rated
within the preceding 24 calendar months. |
| C)
Satisfactorily accomplished a flight review within the preceding 24 calendar
months, but this review must be in an airplane. |
| 55. |
A20 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| What
minimum documentation is required to take an FAA knowledge test for any
flight instructor rating? |
| A)
Proper identification. |
| B) Proof
of satisfactory completion of the appropriate ground training or home study
course. |
| C)
Authorization from an FAA inspector who has verified and endorsed the
applicant's training record. |
| 56. |
A20 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| A
Third-Class Medical Certificate was issued on May 3 to a person over 40
years of age. To exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the
medical certificate will be valid through |
| A) May
3, 24 months later. |
| B) May
31, 24 months later. |
| C) May
31, 36 months later. |
| 57. |
A20 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| To act
as pilot in command of an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower, a
person holding a Private or Commercial Pilot Certificate is required to |
| A)
successfully complete a practical test in such an airplane. |
| B)
receive ground and flight training in an airplane that has more than 200
horsepower. |
| C) make
three takeoffs and landings with an authorized instructor in an airplane of
the same make and model. |
| 58. |
A20 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| What is
the duration of a Student Pilot Certificate? |
| A)
Indefinite. |
| B) 12
calendar months from the month in which it was issued. |
| C) 24
calendar months from the month in which it was issued. |
| 59. |
A26 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| The type
and date of each student pilot endorsement given shall be maintained by each
flight instructor. For what period of time is this record required to be
retained? |
| A) 1
year. |
| B) 2
years. |
| C) 3
years. |
| 60. |
A20 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| A flight
instructor applicant must demonstrate spins in an airplane or glider when |
| A) the
practical test for initial certification is being given. |
| B) being
retested for deficiencies in instructional proficiency on stall awareness or
spins demonstrated during an initial test. |
| C) the
airplane or glider to be used for the practical test is certificated for
spins and the applicant is being given an initial practical test. |
| 61. |
A20 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| To act
as pilot in command of a glider using aerotow procedures, a person must have |
| A)
received 5 hours of ground and flight training on aerotow procedures and
operations in a glider, and completed a practical test. |
| B)
received ground and flight training on aerotow procedures and operations in
a glider, and received an endorsement from an authorized instructor
certifying proficiency. |
| C) made
three solo takeoffs in a glider of the same make and model using aerotow
procedures, and received an endorsement from an authorized instructor
certifying proficiency in the procedures. |
| 62. |
A20 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| What
action may be taken against a person whom the Administrator finds has
cheated on a knowledge test? |
| A) Any
certificate or rating held by the person may be suspended or revoked. |
| B) That
person will be required to wait 24 months before taking another knowledge
test. |
| C) That
person may be required to wait a maximum of 6 months before applying for any
other certificate or rating. |
| 63. |
A20 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| What
class medical certificate, if any, is required for a person adding a rating
to a pilot certificate? |
| A) None. |
| B)
Second-Class. |
| C)
Third-Class. |
| 64. |
A20 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| An
applicant who holds a Commercial Pilot Certificate with ASEL ratings is
seeking a MEL rating at the commercial level. On August 1, 2000, the
applicant shows you a second class medical dated January 2, 1999. May the
applicant take the practical test? |
| A) No. |
| B) Yes. |
| C) Yes,
but at the private pilot skill level. |
| 65. |
A20 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| A person
whose Flight Instructor Certificate has been suspended may not |
| A) give
flight training, but may apply for a rating to be added to that certificate. |
| B) apply
for any rating to be added to that certificate during the period of
suspension. |
| C) apply
for any Flight Instructor Certificate for a period of 1 year after the date
of the suspension. |
| 66. |
A20 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| An
applicant has failed a knowledge test for the second time. With training and
an endorsement from an authorized instructor, when may the applicant apply
for a retest? |
| A)
immediately. |
| B) After
5 days. |
| C) After
30 days. |
| 67. |
A29 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| A
recreational pilot with less than 400 hours' flight time may not act as
pilot in command unless the pilot has |
| A)
logged pilot-in-command time in the last 90 days. |
| B)
logged pilot-in-command time in the last 180 days. |
| C)
received flight instruction from an instructor who certifies the pilot is
competent to conduct flights beyond 50 miles. |
| 68. |
A23 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| Your
student, who is preparing for a Private Pilot practical test in a
single-engine airplane, received 3.5 hours of cross-country flight training
including flights of 1.9 hours, 1.0 hours, and .6 hours. Is your student
eligible to take the practical test? |
| A) No. |
| B) Yes. |
| C) Yes
but, if test is satisfactory, certificate will have an ICAO limitation on
it. |
| 69. |
A01 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| A 'stopway'
can be defined as an area |
| A)
designated for use in decelerating the airplane during an aborted takeoff. |
| B) not
as wide as the runway but capable of supporting an airplane during a normal
takeoff. |
| C) at
least the same width as the runway capable of supporting an airplane during
a normal takeoff. |
| 70. |
A23 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| What
night flight training is required for an unrestricted Private Pilot
Certificate with an airplane rating? |
| A) 3
hours to include 10 takeoffs and 10 landings and one cross-country flight of
over 100 nautical miles. |
| B) 3
hours to include five takeoffs and five landings (each landing from a
traffic pattern). |
| C) 1
hour to include three takeoffs and three landings. |
| 71. |
A24 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| As
pilot, how much gyroplane flight time should an applicant have for a
Commercial Pilot Certificate with a gyroplane rating? |
| A) 150
hours. |
| B) 100
hours. |
| C) 25
hours. |
| 72. |
A23 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| What
flight time is required for a Private Pilot Certificate with a helicopter
rating? |
| A) A
minimum of 40 hours, 19 hours of which must be in helicopters. |
| B) A
minimum of 40 hours in helicopters with at least 15 hours of solo time. |
| C) A
minimum of 40 hours including at least 15 hours of flight training in
helicopters. |
| 73. |
A20 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| To be
eligible for a Commercial Pilot Certificate, one of the requirements is for
the applicant to hold at least a valid |
| A)
First-Class Medical Certificate. |
| B)
Second-Class Medical Certificate. |
| C)
Third-Class Medical Certificate. |
| 74. |
A24 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| Under
FAR Part 61, a commercial pilot-airplane applicant is required to have a
minimum of how much cross-country experience? |
| A) 30
hours. |
| B) 40
hours. |
| C) 50
hours. |
| 75. |
A22 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| Prior to
a first solo flight, the flight instructor is required to endorse the
student's |
| A)
logbook. |
| B) pilot
certificate. |
| C)
logbook and pilot certificate. |
| 76. |
A01 |
CFI |
|
|
|
|
Regulations concerning the operational control of a flight refer to |
| A) the
specific duties of any required crewmember. |
| B)
exercising the privileges of pilot in command of an aircraft. |
| C)
exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight. |
| 77. |
A22 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| Who is
responsible for administering the required knowledge test to a student pilot
prior to solo flight? |
| A) Any
certificated flight instructor. |
| B) Any
certificated ground instructor. |
| C) The
student's authorized instructor. |
| 78. |
A26 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| What
requirement(s) must an authorized instructor meet in order to prepare a
glider applicant for an initial Flight Instructor Certificate rating? |
| A) Held
a Flight Instructor Certificate for 24 months or given 200 hours of flight
training. |
| B) Held
a Flight Instructor Certificate for 12 months and given a minimum of 80
hours of training. |
| C) Held
a Flight Instructor Certificate for at least 24 months and given a minimum
of 80 hours of glider training. |
| 79. |
A22 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| A
student pilot may not operate a balloon in initial solo flight unless that
pilot has |
| A)
received a minimum of 5 hours' flight instruction in a balloon. |
| B) a
valid Student Pilot Certificate and logbook endorsement by an authorized
flight instructor. |
| C) made
at least 10 balloon flights under the supervision of an authorized flight
instructor. |
| 80. |
A01 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| Which is
a definition of the term 'crewmember'? |
| A) A
person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time. |
| B) Any
person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or
flight engineer. |
| C) Only
a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in an
aircraft during flight time. |
| 81. |
A22 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| One
requirement for a student pilot to be authorized to make a solo
cross-country flight is an endorsement |
| A) in
the student's logbook that the instructor has given the student
cross-country instruction in the model of aircraft to be used. |
| B) in
the student's logbook that the preflight planning and preparation has been
reviewed and the student is prepared to make the flight safely. |
| C) on
the Student Pilot Certificate stating the student is competent to make
cross-country flights in the category, class, and type of aircraft involved. |
| 82. |
A01 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| Which is
the correct symbol for the minimum steady flight speed at which an airplane
is controllable? |
| A) Vs. |
| B) Vs1. |
| C) Vso. |
| 83. |
A22 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| To
operate an aircraft on a solo flight within Class B airspace, a student must
have a logbook endorsement showing that he/she has |
| A)
received flight instruction from any authorized flight instructor on
operating within Class B airspace. |
| B)
received ground instruction on and flight instruction in that specific
airspace for which solo flight is authorized. |
| C)
within the preceding 90 days, been found to be competent by any flight
instructor having knowledge of the student's experience in that specific
airspace. |
| 84. |
I30 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| Hail, an
in-flight hazard, is most likely to be associated with |
| A)
cumulus clouds. |
| B)
stratocumulus clouds. |
| C)
cumulonimbus clouds. |
| 85. |
I31 |
CFI |
|
|
|
|
Radiation fog is most likely to occur under what conditions? |
| A) Warm,
moist air being forced upslope by light winds resulting in the air being
cooled and condensed. |
| B) High
humidity during the early evening, cool cloudless night with light winds,
and favorable topography. |
| C) Low
temperature/dewpoint spread, calm wind conditions, the presence of
hydroscopic nuclei, low overcast, and favorable topography. |
| 86. |
I31 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| One
condition necessary for the formation of fog is |
| A) calm
air. |
| B)
visible moisture. |
| C) high
relative humidity. |
| 87. |
I64 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| (Refer
to figure 14.) How are Significant Weather Prognostic Charts best used by a
pilot? |
| A) For
overall planning at all altitudes. |
| B) For
determining areas to avoid (freezing levels and turbulence). |
| C) For
analyzing current frontal activity and cloud coverage. |
| 88. |
I30 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| Select
the true statement pertaining to the life cycle of a thunderstorm. |
| A) The
initial stage of a thunderstorm is always indicated by the development of a
nimbus cloud. |
| B) The
beginning of rain at the Earth's surface indicates the mature stage of the
thunderstorm. |
| C) The
beginning of rain at the Earth's surface indicates the dissipating stage of
the thunderstorm. |
| 89. |
I28 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| Consider
the following statements about mountain waves: |
| 1.
Mountain waves always develop in a series on the upwind (windward) side of
mountain ridges. |
| 2. In a
mountain wave, the air dips sharply downward immediately to the lee side of
a ridge, before rising and falling in a wave motion for a considerable
distance downstream. |
| 3. If
the air is humid and the wave is of large amplitude, lenticular
(lens-shaped) clouds mark the wave's crest. |
| 4. In a
typical wave, the greatest amplitude is seldom more than 1,000 feet above
the ridge crest elevation. |
| From the
statements above, select those which are true. |
| A) 2 and
3. |
| B) 1, 2,
and 3. |
| C) 1, 3,
and 4. |
| 90. |
I28 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| When
flying low over hilly terrain, ridges, or mountain ranges, the greatest
potential danger from turbulent air currents will usually be encountered on
the |
| A)
leeward side when flying with the wind. |
| B)
leeward side when flying into the wind. |
| C)
windward side when flying into the wind. |
| 91. |
I28 |
CFI |
|
|
|
|
Low-level wind shear, which results in a sudden change of wind direction,
may occur |
| A) after
a warm front has passed. |
| B) when
surface winds are light and variable. |
| C) when
there is a low-level temperature inversion with strong winds above the
inversion. |
| 92. |
I28 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| Which
condition could be expected if a strong temperature inversion exists near
the surface? |
| A)
Strong, steady downdrafts and an increase in OAT. |
| B) A
wind shear with the possibility of a sudden loss of airspeed. |
| C) An
OAT increase or decrease with a constant wind condition. |
| 93. |
I29 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| The most
rapid accumulation of clear ice on an aircraft in flight may occur with
temperatures between 0 °C to -15 °C in |
| A)
cumuliform clouds. |
| B)
stratiform clouds. |
| C) any
clouds or dry snow. |
| 94. |
I30 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| What are
the minimum requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm? |
| A)
Sufficient moisture and a lifting action. |
| B)
Sufficient moisture, an unstable lapse rate, and lifting action. |
| C)
Towering cumulus clouds, sufficient moisture, and a frontal zone. |
| 95. |
I30 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| What
feature is associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm? |
| A)
Frequent lightning. |
| B)
Continuous updrafts. |
| C)
Beginning of rain at the surface. |
| 96. |
I35 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| Which is
true regarding the development of convective circulation? |
| A) Cool
air must sink to force the warm air upward. |
| B) Warm
air is less dense and rises on its own accord. |
| C) Cool
air surrounding convective circulation sinks at a greater rate than the
warmer air rises (within the thermal), thus forcing the warmer air upward. |
| 97. |
I30 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| A squall
line is usually associated with a |
| A)
stationary front. |
| B)
fast-moving cold front. |
| C)
fast-moving warm front. |
| 98. |
I30 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| Consider
the following statements regarding hail as an in-flight hazard and select
those which are correct. |
| 1. There
is a correlation between the visual appearance of thunderstorms and the
amount of hail within them. |
| 2 Large
hail is most commonly found in thunderstorms which have strong updrafts and
large liquid water content. |
| 3 Hail
may be found at any level within a thunderstorm but not in the clear air
outside of the storm cloud. |
| 4 Hail
is usually produced during the mature stage of the thunderstorm's lifespan. |
| 5
Hailstones may be thrown upward and outward from a storm cloud for several
miles. |
| The true
statements are: |
| A) 2, 4,
and 5. |
| B) 1, 2,
and 3. |
| C) 1, 2,
4, and 5. |
| 99. |
I29 |
CFI |
|
|
|
| Which is
an operational consideration regarding aircraft structural icing? |
| A) It is
unnecessary for an aircraft to fly through rain or cloud droplets for
structural ice to form. |
| B) Clear
ice is most likely to form on an airplane when flying through stratified
clouds or light drizzle. | |
TRAINING
