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06/09/2003
Bank: (Instrument Rating)
Airman Knowledge Test Question Bank

The FAA computer-assisted testing system is supported by a series of supplement publications. These publications, available through several aviation publishers, include the graphics, legends, and maps that are needed to successfully respond to certain test items. Please download the file Supplements.pdf at the Internet address of http://afs600.faa.gov/ for a complete list of the associated supplement books.

1.	J31	IRA
Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight and level flight?
A) Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.
B) Concentrate on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area.
C) Continuous sweeping of the windshield from right to left.

2.	A20	IRA
What minimum conditions are necessary for the instrument approaches required for IFR currency?
A) The approaches may be made in an aircraft, approved instrument ground trainer, or any combination of these.
B) At least three approaches must be made in the same category of aircraft to be flown.
C) At least three approaches must be made in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown.

3.	A20	IRA
Under which condition may you act as pilot in command of a helicopter under IFR?
Your certificates and ratings: Private Pilot Certificate with AMEL and Airplane instrument, rotorcraft category rating, and helicopter class rating.
A) If a certificated helicopter instrument flight instructor is on board.
B) If you meet the recent helicopter IFR experience requirements.
C) If you acquire a helicopter instrument rating and meet IFR currency requirements.

4.	A20	IRA
What additional flight hours, within the preceding 6 calendar months, are required to maintain IFR currency in a helicopter if you already have 3 hours in an instrument simulator?
A) 3 hours of actual or simulated instrument time in the same type helicopter.
B) None, but 6 instrument approaches, holding procedures and tracking courses must be accomplished.
C) None, but three instrument approaches must also be accomplished.

5.	A20	IRA
What additional instrument approaches, if any, must you perform to meet the recent flight experience requirements for IFR operation in a helicopter?
Within the preceding 6 calendar months, you have accomplished:
One approach in a helicopter.
Two approaches in an airplane.
Two approaches in an approved airplane simulator.
A) None.
B) One approach in an airplane, helicopter, or approved simulator.
C) Five approaches in a helicopter or an approved rotorcraft simulator.

6.	A20	IRA
Do regulations permit you to act as pilot in command of a helicopter in IMC if you hold a Private Pilot Certificate with ASEL, airplane instrument rating, rotorcraft category, and helicopter class rating?
A) Yes, if you comply with the recent IFR experience requirements for a helicopter.
B) No, you must hold either an unrestricted Airline Transport Pilot-Helicopter Certificate or a helicopter instrument rating.
C) No, however, you may do so if you hold an Airline Transport Pilot-Helicopter Certificate, limited to VFR.

7.	B10	IRA
What are the minimum fuel requirements in IFR conditions, if the first airport of intended landing is forecast to have a 1,500 foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility at flight-planned ETA? Fuel to fly to the first airport of intended landing,
A) and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
B) fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
C) fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.

8.	B10	IRA
When must an operational check on the aircraft VOR equipment be accomplished when used to operate under IFR?
A) Within the preceding 10 days or 10 hours of flight time.
B) Within the preceding 30 days or 30 hours of flight time.
C) Within the preceding 30 days.

9.	B11	IRA
In the 48 contiguous states, excluding the airspace at or below 2,500 feet AGL, an operable coded transponder equipped with Mode C capability is required in all controlled airspace at and above
A) 12,500 feet MSL.
B) 10,000 feet MSL.
C) Flight level (FL) 180.

10.	A20	IRA
You intend to carry passengers for hire on a night VFR flight in a single engine airplane within a 25 mile radius of the departure airport. You are required to possess at least which rating(s)?
A) A Commercial Pilot Certificate with a single engine land rating.
B) A Commercial Pilot Certificate with a single engine and instrument (airplane) rating.
C) A Private Pilot Certificate with a single engine land and instrument airplane rating.

11.	A20	IRA
A certificated commercial pilot who carries passengers for hire at night or in excess of 50 NM is required to have at least
A) an associated type rating if the airplane is of the multiengine class.
B) a First-Class Medical Certificate.
C) an instrument rating in the same category and class of aircraft.

12.	A20	IRA
When are you required to have an instrument rating for flight in VMC?
A) Flight through an MOA.
B) Flight into an ADIZ.
C) Flight into class A airspace.

13.	J08	IRA
No person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless he/she files a flight plan
A) and receives a clearance by telephone prior to takeoff.
B) prior to takeoff and requests the clearance upon arrival on an airway.
C) and receives a clearance prior to entering controlled airspace.

14.	B08	IRA
What action should you take if your DME fails at FL 240?
A) Advise ATC of the failure and land at the nearest available airport where repairs can be made.
B) Notify ATC that it will be necessary for you to go to a lower altitude, since your DME has failed.
C) Notify ATC of the failure and continue to the next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made.

15.	B08	IRA
Which procedure is recommended while climbing to an assigned altitude on the airway?
A) Climb on the centerline of the airway except when maneuvering to avoid other air traffic in VFR conditions.
B) Climb slightly on the right side of the airway when in VFR conditions.
C) Climb far enough to the right side of the airway to avoid climbing or descending traffic coming from the opposite direction if in VFR conditions.

16.	A24	IRA
What limitation is imposed on a newly certificated commercial airplane pilot if that person does not hold an instrument pilot rating?
A) The carrying of passengers or property for hire on cross-country flights at night is limited to a radius of 50 nautical miles (NM).
B) The carrying of passengers for hire on cross-country flights is limited to 50 NM for night flights, but not limited for day flights.
C) The carrying of passengers for hire on cross-country flights is limited to 50 NM and the carrying of passengers for hire at night is prohibited.

17.	B08	IRA
Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight including:
A) all instrument approaches at the destination airport.
B) an alternate airport and adequate takeoff and landing performance at the destination airport.
C) the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the aircraft's takeoff and landing data.

18.	A20	IRA
No pilot may act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft, under IFR or in weather conditions less than the minimums prescribed for VFR unless that pilot has, within the preceding 6 calendar months, completed at least
A) three instrument approaches and logged 3 hours.
B) six instrument flights under actual IFR conditions.
C) six instrument approaches, holding procedures, intercepting and tracking courses using navigational systems, or passed an instrument proficiency check.

19.	B11	IRA
(Refer to figure 59.) Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, what is the minimum equipment for navigation of helicopters on an IFR cross-country flight when in the immediate vicinity of the HUMBLE VORTAC?
A) VOR receiver, transponder with Mode C capability, and two-way communications.
B) Transponder with Mode C capability and two-way communications.
C) VOR (or TACAN) and two-way communications.

20.	A20	IRA
A pilot's recent IFR experience expires on July 1 of this year. What is the latest date the pilot can meet the IFR experience requirement without having to take an instrument proficiency check?
A) December 31, this year.
B) June 30, next year.
C) July 31, this year.

21.	B10	IRA
During your preflight planning for an IFR flight, you determine that the first airport of intended landing has no instrument approach prescribed in 14 CFR part 97. The weather forecast for one hour before through one hour after your estimated time of arrival is 3000' scattered with 5 miles visibility.
To meet the fuel requirements for this flight, you must be able to fly to the first airport of intended landing,
A) and then fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
B) then to the alternate airport, and then for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
C) then to the alternate airport, and then for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.

22.	B10	IRA
During your preflight planning for an IFR flight, you determine that the first airport of intended landing has no instrument approach prescribed in 14 CFR part 97. The weather forecast for one hour before through one hour after your estimated time of arrival is 3000' scattered with 5 miles visibility.
To meet the fuel requirements for this flight, you must be able to fly to the first airport of intended landing,
A) and then fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
B) then to the alternate airport, and then for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
C) then to the alternate airport, and then for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.

23.	B10	IRA
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing or unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, the minimum altitude for IFR flight is
A) 3,000 feet over all terrain.
B) 3,000 feet over designated mountainous terrain; 2,000 feet over terrain elsewhere.
C) 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle over designated mountainous terrain; 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle over terrain elsewhere.

24.	B11	IRA
If the aircraft's transponder fails during flight within Class B airspace,
A) the pilot should immediately request clearance to depart the Class B airspace.
B) ATC may authorize deviation from the transponder requirement to allow aircraft to continue to the airport of ultimate destination.
C) aircraft must immediately descend below 1,200 feet AGL and proceed to destination.

25.	A20	IRA
To meet instrument experience requirements of 14 CFR part 61, section 61.57(c), a pilot enters the condition of flight in the pilot logbook as simulated instrument conditions. What other qualifying information must be entered?
A) Location and type of each instrument approach completed and name of safety pilot.
B) Number and type of instrument approaches completed and route of flight.
C) Name and pilot certificate number of safety pilot and type of approaches completed.

26.	A20	IRA
What portion of dual instruction time may a certificated instrument flight instructor log as instrument flight time?
A) All time during which the instructor acts as instrument instructor, regardless of weather conditions.
B) All time during which the instructor acts as instrument instructor in actual instrument weather conditions.
C) Only the time during which the instructor flies the aircraft by reference to instruments.

27.	A20	IRA
Which flight time may be logged as instrument time when on an instrument flight plan?
A) All of the time the aircraft was not controlled by ground references.
B) Only the time you controlled the aircraft solely by reference to flight instruments.
C) Only the time you were flying in IFR weather conditions.

28.	B08	IRA
What are the minimum qualifications for a person who occupies the other control seat as safety pilot during simulated instrument flight?
A) Private pilot certificate with appropriate category and class ratings for the aircraft.
B) Private pilot with appropriate category, class, and instrument ratings.
C) Private pilot with instrument rating.

29.	A20	IRA
To meet the minimum instrument experience requirements, within the last 6 calendar months you need
A) six instrument approaches, holding procedures, and intercepting and tracking courses in the appropriate category of aircraft.
B) six hours in the same category aircraft.
C) six hours in the same category aircraft, and at least 3 of the 6 hours in actual IFR conditions.

30.	A20	IRA
After your recent IFR experience lapses, how much time do you have before you must pass an instrument competency check to act as pilot in command under IFR?
A) 6 months.
B) 90 days.
C) 12 months.

31.	A20	IRA
An instrument rated pilot, who has not logged any instrument time in 1 year or more, cannot serve as pilot in command under IFR, unless the pilot
A) completes the required 6 hours and six approaches, followed by an instrument proficiency check given by an FAA-designated examiner.
B) passes an instrument proficiency check in the category of aircraft involved, given by an approved FAA examiner, instrument instructor, or FAA inspector.
C) passes an instrument proficiency check in the category of aircraft involved, followed by 6 hours and six instrument approaches, 3 of those hours in the category of aircraft involved.

32.	B07	IRA
The use of certain portable electronic devices is prohibited on aircraft that are being operated under
A) IFR.
B) VFR.
C) DVFR.

33.	B10	IRA
What are the minimum weather conditions that must be forecast to list an airport as an alternate when the airport has no approved IAP?
A) The ceiling and visibility at ETA, 2,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively.
B) The ceiling and visibility from 2 hours before until 2 hours after ETA, 2,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively.
C) The ceiling and visibility at ETA must allow descent from MEA, approach, and landing, under basic VFR.

34.	B10	IRA
For helicopters, is an alternate airport required for an IFR flight to ATL (Atlanta Hartsfield) if the proposed ETA is 1930Z?
TAF KATL 121720Z 121818 20012KT 5SM HZ BKN030
FM2000 3SM TSRA OVC025CB
FM2200 33015G20KT P6SM BKN015 OVC040 BECMG 0608
02008KT BKN 040 BECMG 1012 00000KT P6SM CLR=
A) Yes, because the ceiling could fall below 2,000 feet within 2 hours before to 2 hours after the ETA.
B) No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to remain at or above 1,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively.
C) No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to be at or above 1,000 feet above the airport elevation (and 400 feet above the approach minima) with 3 miles visibility at the ETA to 1 hour thereafter.

35.	B11	IRA
What minimum navigation equipment is required for IFR flight?
A) VOR/LOC receiver, transponder, and DME.
B) VOR receiver and, if in ARTS III environment, a coded transponder equipped for altitude reporting.
C) Navigation equipment appropriate to the ground facilities to be used.

36.	B11	IRA
An aircraft operated under 14 CFR part 91 IFR is required to have which of the following?
A) Radar altimeter.
B) Dual VOR system.
C) Gyroscopic direction indicator.

37.	B13	IRA
Your aircraft had the static pressure system and altimeter tested and inspected on January 5, of this year, and was found to comply with FAA standards. These systems must be reinspected and approved for use in controlled airspace under IFR by
A) January 5, next year.
B) January 5, 2 years hence.
C) January 31, 2 years hence.

38.	B10	IRA
When making an airborne VOR check, what is the maximum allowable tolerance between the two indicators of a dual VOR system (units independent of each other except the antenna)?
A) 4° between the two indicated bearings of a VOR.
B) Plus or minus 4° when set to identical radials of a VOR.
C) 6° between the two indicated radials of a VOR.

39.	B10	IRA
What minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport, that has only a VOR approach with standard alternate minimums, for the airport to be listed as an alternate on the IFR flight plan?
A) 800 foot ceiling and 1 statute mile visibility.
B) 800 foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility.
C) 1,000 foot ceiling and visibility to allow descent from minimum en route altitude (MEA), approach, and landing under basic VFR.

40.	B10	IRA
For aircraft other than helicopters, what minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport that has a precision approach procedure, with standard alternate minimums, in order to list it as an alternate for the IFR flight?
A) 600 foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at your ETA.
B) 600 foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility from 2 hours before to 2 hours after your ETA.
C) 800 foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at your ETA.

41.	B11	IRA
What is the maximum IFR altitude you may fly in an unpressurized aircraft without providing passengers with supplemental oxygen?
A) 12,500 feet.
B) 14,000 feet.
C) 15,000 feet.

42.	B10	IRA
For aircraft other than helicopters, is an alternate airport required for an IFR flight to ATL (Atlanta Hartsfield) if the proposed ETA is 1930Z?
TAF KATL 121720Z 121818 20012KT 5SM HZ BKN030
FM2000 3SM TSRA OVC025CB
FM2200 33015G20KT P6SM BKN015 OVC040 BECMG 0608
02008KT BKN 040 BECMG 1012 00000KT P6SM CLR=
A) Yes, because the ceiling could fall below 2,000 feet within 2 hours before to 2 hours after the ETA.
B) No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to remain at or above 1,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively.
C) No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to be at or above 2,000 feet and 3 miles within 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA.

43.	B10	IRA
When is an IFR flight plan required?
A) When less than VFR conditions exist in either Class E or Class G airspace and in Class A airspace.
B) In all Class E airspace when conditions are below VFR, in Class A airspace, and in defense zone airspace.
C) In Class E airspace when IMC exists or in Class A airspace.

44.	B10	IRA
For helicopters, what minimum conditions must exist at the destination airport to avoid listing an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan when a standard IAP is available?
A) From the ETA to 1 hour after the ETA, reports and forecasts indicate a ceiling 1,000 feet above the airport elevation, or at least 400 feet above the lowest applicable approach minima, whichever is higher, and visibility 2 statute miles.
B) From 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, reports and forecasts indicate a ceiling of 1,000 feet above the airport elevation and visibility 2 miles.
C) From 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 3 miles.

45.	B10	IRA
For aircraft other than helicopters, what minimum conditions must exist at the destination airport to avoid listing an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan when a standard IAP is available?
A) From 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 2 and 1/2 miles.
B) From 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA, forecast ceiling 3,000, and visibility 3 miles.
C) From 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 3 miles.

46.	B11	IRA
Where is DME required under IFR?
A) At or above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required.
B) In positive control airspace.
C) Above 18,000 feet MSL.

47.	B10	IRA
For helicopters, what minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport that has only a VOR approach with standard alternate minimums, for the airport to be listed as an alternate on the IFR flight plan?
A) 800 foot ceiling and 1 statute mile (SM) visibility.
B) 800 foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility.
C) Ceiling 200 feet above the minimums for the approach to be flown and 1 statute mile visibility, but not less than the minimum visibility for the approach to be flown.

48.	B10	IRA
For helicopters, what minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport that has a precision approach procedure, with standard alternate minimums, in order to list it as an alternate for the IFR flight?
A) 600 foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at your ETA.
B) 200 foot ceiling above the airport elevation and 1 SM visibility from 1 hour before to 1 hour after your ETA.
C) 200 foot ceiling above the approach minimums and 1 SM visibility, but not less than the visibility minimums for the approach, at your ETA.

49.	B07	IRA
Who is responsible for determining that the altimeter system has been checked and found to meet 14 CFR part 91 requirements for a particular instrument flight?
A) Owner.
B) Operator.
C) Pilot-in-command.

50.	B10	IRA
Which data must be recorded in the aircraft log or other appropriate log by a pilot making a VOR operational check for IFR operations?
A) VOR name or identification, date of check, amount of bearing error, and signature.
B) Place of operational check, amount of bearing error, date of check, and signature.
C) Date of check, VOR name or identification, place of operational check, and amount of bearing error.

51.	B10	IRA
When departing from an airport located outside controlled airspace during IMC, you must file an IFR flight plan and receive a clearance before
A) takeoff.
B) entering IFR conditions.
C) entering Class E airspace.

52.	B11	IRA
Aircraft being operated under IFR are required to have, in addition to the equipment required for VFR and night, at least
A) distance measuring equipment.
B) dual VOR receivers.
C) a slip skid indicator.

53.	G10	IRA
Which publication covers the procedures required for aircraft accident and incident reporting responsibilities for pilots?
A) FAR Part 61.
B) FAR Part 91.
C) NTSB Part 830.

54.	B10	IRA
For aircraft other than helicopters, what forecast weather minimums are required to list an airport as an alternate on an IFR flight plan if the airport has VOR approach only?
A) Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles, respectively.
B) Ceiling and visibility from 2 hours before until 2 hours after ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles, respectively.
C) Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 600 feet and 2 miles, respectively.

55.	B11	IRA
If an unpressurized aircraft is operated above 12,500 feet MSL, but not more than 14,000 feet MSL, for a period of 2 hours 20 minutes, how long during that time is the minimum flightcrew required to use supplemental oxygen?
A) 2 hours 20 minutes.
B) 1 hour 20 minutes.
C) 1 hour 50 minutes.

56.	B97	IRA
What reduction, if any, to visibility requirements is authorized when using a fixed wing IAP for a helicopter instrument approach?
A) All visibility requirements may be reduced by one half.
B) All visibility requirements may be reduced by one fourth.
C) The visibility requirements may be reduced by one half, but in no case lower than 1,200 RVR or 1/4 mile.

57.	J42	IRA
All helicopters are considered to be in which approach category for a helicopter IAP?
A) A.
B) A or B, depending upon weight.
C) B.

58.	B10	IRA
When a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate airport, which minimums apply for landing at the alternate?
A) 600 1 if the airport has an ILS.
B) Ceiling 200 feet above the published minimum; visibility 2 miles.
C) The landing minimums for the approach to be used.

59.	J18	IRA
When being radar vectored for an ILS approach, at what point may you start a descent from your last assigned altitude to a lower minimum altitude if cleared for the approach?
A) When established on a segment of a published route or IAP.
B) You may descend immediately to published glide slope interception altitude.
C) Only after you are established on the final approach unless informed otherwise by ATC.

60.	J42	IRA
Upon what maximum airspeed is the instrument approach criteria for a helicopter based?
A) 100 knots.
B) 90 knots.
C) 80 knots.

61.	B10	IRA
A pilot is making an ILS approach and is past the OM to a runway which has a VASI. What action should the pilot take if an electronic glide slope malfunction occurs and the pilot has the VASI in sight?
A) The pilot should inform ATC of the malfunction and then descend immediately to the localizer DH and make a localizer approach.
B) The pilot may continue the approach and use the VASI glide slope in place of the electronic glide slope.
C) The pilot must request an LOC approach, and may descend below the VASI at the pilot's discretion.

62.	B97	IRA
(Refer to figure 133.) If the Class D airspace is not effective, what is the LOC/VOR minima for a helicopter if cleared for the S LOC 9 approach at Riverside Municipal?
A) 1,200 and 1/4 mile.
B) 991 and RVR 24.
C) 1,300 and 1/4 mile.

63.	B11	IRA
(Refer to figure 89.) What are the oxygen requirements for an IFR flight northeast bound from Bryce Canyon on V382 at the lowest appropriate altitude in an unpressurized aircraft?
A) The required minimum crew must be provided and use supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight of more than 30 minutes.
B) The required minimum crew must be provided and use supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight of more than 30 minutes, and the passengers must be provided supplemental oxygen.
C) The required minimum crew must be provided and use supplemental oxygen, and all occupants must be provided supplemental oxygen for the entire flight above 15,000 feet.

64.	B10	IRA
RVR minimums for landing are prescribed in an IAP, but RVR is inoperative and cannot be reported for the intended runway at the time. Which of the following would be an operational consideration?
A) RVR minimums which are specified in the procedures should be converted and applied as ground visibility.
B) RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing the runway has an operative HIRL system.
C) RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing all other components of the ILS system are operative.

65.	B10	IRA
The RVR minimums for takeoff or landing are published in an IAP, but RVR is inoperative and cannot be reported for the runway at the time. Which of the following would apply?
A) RVR minimums which are specified in the procedure should be converted and applied as ground visibility.
B) RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing the runway has an operative HIRL system.
C) RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing all other components of the ILS system are operative.

66.	B10	IRA
If during an ILS approach in IFR conditions, the approach lights are not visible upon arrival at the DH, the pilot is
A) required to immediately execute the missed approach procedure.
B) permitted to continue the approach and descend to the localizer MDA.
C) permitted to continue the approach to the approach threshold of the ILS runway.

67.	B10	IRA
If the RVR is not reported, what meteorological value should you substitute for 2,400 RVR?
A) A ground visibility of 1/2 NM.
B) A slant range visibility of 2,400 feet for the final approach segment of the published approach procedure.
C) A ground visibility of 1/2 SM.

68.	B10	IRA
What are the alternate minimums that must be forecast at the ETA for an airport that has a precision approach procedure?
A) 400 foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.
B) 600 foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.
C) 800 foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.

69.	B10	IRA
When an alternate airport is required, what are the weather minimums that must be forecast at the ETA for an alternate airport that has a precision approach procedure?
A) Ceiling 200 feet above the approach minimums and at least 1 statute mile visibility, but not less than the minimum visibility for the approach.
B) Ceiling 200 feet above field elevation and visibility 1 statute mile, but not less than the minimum visibility for the approach.
C) 600 foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility.

70.	B10	IRA
What point at the destination should be used to compute estimated time en route on an IFR flight plan?
A) The final approach fix on the expected instrument approach.
B) The initial approach fix on the expected instrument approach.
C) The point of first intended landing.

71.	B10	IRA
If the RVR equipment is inoperative for an IAP that requires a visibility of 2,400 RVR, how should the pilot expect the visibility requirement to be reported in lieu of the published RVR?
A) As a slant range visibility of 2,400 feet.
B) As an RVR of 2,400 feet.
C) As a ground visibility of 1/2 SM.

72.	B10	IRA
In the case of operations over an area designated as a mountainous area, no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of
A) 3 SM from the course flown.
B) 4 SM from the course flown.
C) 4 NM from the course flown.

73.	B10	IRA
An airport without an authorized IAP may be included on an IFR flight plan as an alternate, if the current weather forecast indicates that the ceiling and visibility at the ETA will
A) allow for descent from the IAF to landing under basic VFR conditions.
B) be at least 1,000 feet and 1 mile.
C) allow for a descent from the MEA, approach, and a landing under basic VFR conditions.

74.	J06	IRA
(Refer to figure 93.) What is the maximum altitude that Class G airspace will exist? (Does not include airspace less than 1,500 feet AGL.)
A) 18,000 feet MSL.
B) 14,500 feet MSL.
C) 14,000 feet MSL.

75.	J08	IRA
(Refer to figure 93.) What is generally the maximum altitude for Class B airspace?
A) 4,000 feet MSL.
B) 10,000 feet MSL.
C) 14,500 feet MSL.

76.	J08	IRA
(Refer to figure 93.) What are the normal lateral limits for Class D airspace?
A) 8 NM.
B) 5 NM.
C) 4 NM.

77.	J08	IRA
(Refer to figure 93.) What is the floor of Class E airspace when designated in conjunction with an airport which has an approved IAP?
A) 500 feet AGL.
B) 700 feet AGL.
C) 1,200 feet AGL.

78.	B09	IRA
(Refer to figure 92.) What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for an airplane operating less than 1,200 feet AGL under special VFR during daylight hours in area 5?
A) 1 mile; (I) 2,000 feet; (J) 2,000 feet; (L) 500 feet.
B) 3 miles; (I) clear of clouds; (J) clear of clouds; (L) 500 feet.
C) 1 mile; (I) clear of clouds; (J) clear of clouds; (L) clear of clouds.

79.	B11	IRA
(Refer to figure 91.) What are the oxygen requirements for an IFR flight eastbound on V520 from DBS VORTAC in an unpressurized aircraft at the MEA?
A) The required minimum crew must be provided and use supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight of more than 30 minutes.
B) The required minimum crew must be provided and use supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight of more than 30 minutes, and the passengers must be provided supplemental oxygen.
C) The required minimum crew must be provided and use supplemental oxygen.

80.	B09	IRA
What is the required flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are operating in Class E airspace at 9,500 feet MSL with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours?
A) 3 SM, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.
B) 5 SM, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.
C) 3 SM, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.

81.	B09	IRA
(Refer to figure 92.) What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for a VFR-on-Top flight at 9,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) during daylight hours for area 3?
A) 2,000 feet; (E) 1,000 feet; (F) 2,000 feet; (H) 500 feet.
B) 5 miles; (E) 1,000 feet; (F) 2,000 feet; (H) 500 feet.
C) 3 miles; (E) 1,000 feet; (F) 2,000 feet; (H) 500 feet.

82.	B09	IRA
(Refer to figure 92.) A flight is to be conducted in VFR-on-Top conditions at 12,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL). What is the in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for operation in Class E airspace during daylight hours for area 1?
A) 5 miles; (A) 1,000 feet; (B) 2,000 feet; (D) 500 feet.
B) 5 miles; (A) 1,000 feet; (B) 1 mile; (D) 1,000 feet.
C) 3 miles; (A) 1,000 feet; (B) 2,000 feet; (D) 1,000 feet.

83.	B09	IRA
(Refer to figure 92.) What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required in VFR conditions above clouds at 13,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) in Class G airspace during daylight hours for area 2?
A) 5 miles; (A) 1,000 feet; (C) 2,000 feet; (D) 500 feet.
B) 3 miles; (A) 1,000 feet; (C) 1 mile; (D) 1,000 feet.
C) 5 miles; (A) 1,000 feet; (C) 1 mile; (D) 1,000 feet.

84.	J08	IRA
(Refer to figure 93.) Which altitude is the upper limit for Class A airspace?
A) 14,500 feet MSL.
B) 18,000 feet MSL.
C) 60,000 feet MSL.

85.	B09	IRA
(Refer to figure 92.) What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for an airplane operating less than 1,200 feet AGL during daylight hours in area 6?
A) 3 miles; (I) 1,000 feet; (K) 2,000 feet; (L) 500 feet.
B) 1 mile; (I) clear of clouds; (K) clear of clouds; (L) clear of clouds.
C) 1 mile; (I) 500 feet; (K) 1,000 feet; (L) 500 feet.

86.	B97	IRA
(Refer to figure 128.) What is the helicopter MDA for a straight in VOR RWY 36 approach at Price/Carbon County Airport (VOR only)?
A) 6,090 feet MSL.
B) 500 feet MSL.
C) 6,400 feet MSL.

87.	J08	IRA
(Refer to figure 93.) What is the floor of Class E airspace when designated in conjunction with an airway?
A) 700 feet AGL.
B) 1,200 feet AGL.
C) 1,500 feet AGL.

88.	B10	IRA
During a precision instrument approach (using Category A minimums) a helicopter may not be operated below DH unless
A) the ceiling is forecast to be at or above landing minimums prescribed for that procedure.
B) positioned such that a normal approach to the runway of intended landing can be made.
C) the visibility is forecast to be at or above the landing minimums prescribed for that procedure.

89.	B10	IRA
In the event of two-way radio communications failure while operating on an IFR clearance in VFR conditions the pilot should continue
A) by the route assigned in the last ATC clearance received.
B) the flight under VFR and land as soon as practical.
C) the flight by the most direct route to the fix specified in the last clearance.

90.	B97	IRA
(Refer to figure 128.) What is the helicopter landing minimum for the VOR RWY 36 approach at Price/Carbon County Airport?
A) 500 foot ceiling and 1/2 mile visibility.
B) 1 mile visibility.
C) one half mile visibility.

91.	B09	IRA
(Refer to figure 92.) What in-flight visibility and distance from clouds is required for a flight at 8,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) in Class G airspace in VFR conditions during daylight hours in area 4?
A) 1 mile; (E) 1,000 feet; (G) 2,000 feet; (H) 500 feet.
B) 3 miles; (E) 1,000 feet; (G) 2,000 feet; (H) 500 feet.
C) 5 miles; (E) 1,000 feet; (G) 1 mile; (H) 1,000 feet.

92.	B08	IRA
In the case of operations over an area designated as a mountainous area where no other minimum altitude is prescribed, no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below an altitude of
A) 500 feet above the highest obstacle.
B) 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle.
C) 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle.

93.	J33	IRA
MEA is an altitude which assures
A) obstacle clearance, accurate navigational signals from more than one VORTAC, and accurate DME mileage.
B) a 1,000-foot obstacle clearance within 2 miles of an airway and assures accurate DME mileage.
C) acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstruction clearance requirements.

94.	B08	IRA
If, while in Class E airspace, a clearance is received to 'maintain VFR conditions on top,' the pilot should maintain a VFR cruising altitude based on the direction of the
A) true course.
B) magnetic heading.
C) magnetic course.

95.	J33	IRA
Reception of signals from a radio facility, located off the airway being flown, may be inadequate at the designated MEA to identify the fix. In this case, which altitude is designated for the fix?
A) MOCA.
B) MRA.
C) MCA.

96.	B09	IRA
What is the minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds for flight at 10,500 feet with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours? (Class E airspace.)
A) 3 SM, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.
B) 5 SM, 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 1 mile horizontal.
C) 5 SM, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 1 mile horizontal.

97.	J08	IRA
(Refer to figure 93.) Which altitude is the normal upper limit for Class D airspace?
A) 1,000 feet AGL.
B) 2,500 feet AGL.
C) 4,000 feet AGL.

98.	J33	IRA
Acceptable navigational signal coverage at the MOCA is assured for a distance from the VOR of only
A) 12 NM.
B) 22 NM.
C) 25 NM.

99.	J08	IRA
(Refer to figure 93.) What is the floor of Class A airspace?
A) 10,000 feet MSL.
B) 14,500 feet MSL.
C) 18,000 feet MSL.

100.	I28	IRA
Fair weather cumulus clouds often indicate
A) turbulence at and below the cloud level.
B) poor visibility.
C) smooth flying conditions.

101.	J34	IRA
(Refer to figure 46.) What are the hours of operation (local time) of the ATIS for the Yakima Air Terminal when daylight savings time is in effect?
A) 0500 to 2100 local.
B) 0600 to 2200 local.
C) 0700 to 2300 local.

102.	I30	IRA
Where do squall lines most often develop?
A) In an occluded front.
B) In a cold air mass.
C) Ahead of a cold front.

103.	I28	IRA
What is an important characteristic of wind shear?
A) It is an atmospheric condition that is associated exclusively with zones of convergence.
B) The Coriolis phenomenon in both high and low level air masses is the principal generating force.
C) It is an atmospheric condition that may be associated with a low level temperature inversion, a jet stream, or a frontal zone.

104.	I30	IRA
What are the requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm?
A) A cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture.
B) A cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture and an inverted lapse rate.
C) Sufficient moisture, an unstable lapse rate, and a lifting action.

105.	I30	IRA
What is an indication that downdrafts have developed and the thunderstorm cell has entered the mature stage?
A) The anvil top has completed its development.
B) Precipitation begins to fall from the cloud base.
C) A gust front forms.

106.	I30	IRA
Which thunderstorms generally produce the most severe conditions, such as heavy hail and destructive winds?
A) Warm front.
B) Squall line.
C) Air mass.

107.	I29	IRA
Why is frost considered hazardous to flight operation?
A) Frost changes the basic aerodynamic shape of the airfoil.
B) Frost decreases control effectiveness.
C) Frost causes early airflow separation resulting in a loss of lift.

108.	I30	IRA
Which weather phenomenon is always associated with a thunderstorm?
A) Lightning.
B) Heavy rain showers.
C) Supercooled raindrops.

109.	I30	IRA
During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?
A) Cumulus.
B) Dissipating.
C) Mature.

110.	I57	IRA
If squalls are reported at your destination, what wind conditions should you anticipate?
A) Sudden increases in wind speed of at least 16 knots, rising to 22 knots or more, lasting for at least 1 minute.
B) Peak gusts of at least 35 knots for a sustained period of 1 minute or longer.
C) Rapid variation in wind direction of at least 20° and changes in speed of at least 10 knots between peaks and lulls.

111.	I27	IRA
What is indicated by the term 'embedded thunderstorms'?
A) Severe thunderstorms are embedded within a squall line.
B) Thunderstorms are predicted to develop in a stable air mass.
C) Thunderstorms are obscured by massive cloud layers and cannot be seen.

112.	I28	IRA
Which is a characteristic of low level wind shear as it relates to frontal activity?
A) With a warm front, the most critical period is before the front passes the airport.
B) With a cold front, the most critical period is just before the front passes the airport.
C) Turbulence will always exist in wind shear conditions.

113.	I29	IRA
What is an operational consideration if you fly into rain which freezes on impact?
A) You have flown into an area of thunderstorms.
B) Temperatures are above freezing at some higher altitude.
C) You have flown through a cold front.

114.	I28	IRA
Where does wind shear occur?
A) Exclusively in thunderstorms.
B) Wherever there is an abrupt decrease in pressure and/or temperature.
C) With either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.

115.	I20	IRA
The average height of the troposphere in the middle latitudes is
A) 20,000 feet.
B) 25,000 feet.
C) 37,000 feet.

116.	I27	IRA
Which weather phenomenon is always associated with the passage of a frontal system?
A) A wind change.
B) An abrupt decrease in pressure.
C) Clouds, either ahead or behind the front.

117.	I30	IRA
Where can wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found? Choose the most complete answer.
A) In front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the right side of the cell.
B) In front of the thunderstorm cell and directly under the cell.
C) On all sides of the thunderstorm cell and directly under the cell.

118.	I26	IRA
What are the four families of clouds?
A) Stratus, cumulus, nimbus, and cirrus.
B) Clouds formed by updrafts, fronts, cooling layers of air, and precipitation into warm air.
C) High, middle, low, and those with extensive vertical development.

119.	I29	IRA
Which family of clouds is least likely to contribute to structural icing on an aircraft?
A) Low clouds.
B) High clouds.
C) Clouds with extensive vertical development.

120.	I28	IRA
The presence of standing lenticular altocumulus clouds is a good indication of
A) a jet stream.
B) very strong turbulence.
C) heavy icing conditions.

121.	I26	IRA
The suffix 'nimbus', used in naming clouds, means a
A) cloud with extensive vertical development.
B) rain cloud.
C) dark massive, towering cloud.

122.	I28	IRA
Standing lenticular clouds, in mountainous areas, indicate
A) an inversion.
B) unstable air.
C) turbulence.

123.	I28	IRA
Which clouds have the greatest turbulence?
A) Towering cumulus.
B) Cumulonimbus.
C) Altocumulus castellanus.

124.	I27	IRA
Which are characteristics of an unstable cold air mass moving over a warm surface?
A) Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and poor visibility.
B) Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility.
C) Stratiform clouds, smooth air, and poor visibility.

125.	I27	IRA
Frontal waves normally form on
A) slow moving cold fronts or stationary fronts.
B) slow moving warm fronts and strong occluded fronts.
C) rapidly moving cold fronts or warm fronts.

126.	I30	IRA
Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?
A) The start of rain at the surface.
B) Growth rate of cloud is maximum.
C) Strong turbulence in the cloud.

127.	I56	IRA
What significant sky condition is reported in this METAR observation?
METAR KBNA 1250Z 33018KT 290V360 1/2SM R31/2700FT +SN
BLSNFG VV008 00/M03 A2991 RMK RAE42SNB42
A) Runway 31 ceiling is 2700 feet.
B) Sky is obscured with vertical visibility of 800 feet.
C) Measured ceiling is 300 feet overcast.

128.	I28	IRA
What is an important characteristic of wind shear?
A) It is primarily associated with the lateral vortices generated by thunderstorms.
B) It usually exists only in the vicinity of thunderstorms, but may be found near a strong temperature inversion.
C) It may be associated with either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.

129.	I31	IRA
What situation is most conducive to the formation of radiation fog?
A) Warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights.
B) Moist, tropical air moving over cold, offshore water.
C) The movement of cold air over much warmer water.

130.	I57	IRA
SIGMET's are issued as a warning of weather conditions potentially hazardous
A) particularly to light aircraft.
B) to all aircraft.
C) only to light aircraft operations.

131.	I57	IRA
What is the forecast wind at 1800Z in the following TAF?
KMEM 091740Z 1818 00000KT 1/2SM RAFG OVC005=
A) Calm.
B) Unknown.
C) Not recorded.

132.	I57	IRA
'WND' in the categorical outlook in the Aviation Area Forecast means that the wind during that period is forecast to be
A) At least 6 knots or stronger.
B) At least 15 knots or stronger.
C) At least 20 knots or stronger.

133.	I57	IRA
Which primary source should be used to obtain forecast weather information at your destination for the planned ETA?
A) Area Forecast.
B) Radar Summary and Weather Depiction Charts.
C) Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF).

134.	I64	IRA
What does a Convective Outlook (AC) describe for a following 24 hour period?
A) General thunderstorm activity.
B) A severe weather watch bulletin.
C) When forecast conditions are expected to continue beyond the valid period.

135.	I60	IRA
What important information is provided by the Radar Summary Chart that is not shown on other weather charts?
A) Lines and cells of hazardous thunderstorms.
B) Types of precipitation.
C) Areas of cloud cover and icing levels within the clouds.

136.	I29	IRA
Test data indicate that ice, snow, or frost having a thickness and roughness similar to medium or coarse sandpaper on the leading edge and upper surface of an airfoil can
A) reduce lift by as much as 50 percent and increase drag by as much as 50 percent.
B) increase drag and reduce lift by as much as 25 percent.
C) reduce lift by as much as 30 percent and increase drag by 40 percent.

137.	I57	IRA
The body of a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) covers a geographical proximity within a
A) 5 statute mile radius from the center of an airport runway complex.
B) 5 to 10 statute mile radius from the center of an airport runway complex.
C) 5 nautical mile radius of the center of an airport.

138.	I29	IRA
In which meteorological environment is aircraft structural icing most likely to have the highest rate of accumulation?
A) Cumulonimbus clouds.
B) High humidity and freezing temperature.
C) Freezing rain.

139.	I32	IRA
The strength and location of the jet stream is normally
A) stronger and farther north in the winter.
B) weaker and farther north in the summer.
C) stronger and farther north in the summer.

140.	I31	IRA
What types of fog depend upon a wind in order to exist?
A) Steam fog and down slope fog.
B) Precipitation induced fog and ground fog.
C) Advection fog and up slope fog.

141.	I31	IRA
In what localities is advection fog most likely to occur?
A) Coastal areas.
B) Mountain slopes.
C) Level inland areas.

142.	I31	IRA
In which situation is advection fog most likely to form?
A) An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter.
B) A light breeze blowing colder air out to sea.
C) Warm, moist air settling over a warmer surface under no wind conditions.

143.	I31	IRA
Fog is usually prevalent in industrial areas because of
A) atmospheric stabilization around cities.
B) an abundance of condensation nuclei from combustion products.
C) increased temperatures due to industrial heating.

144.	I32	IRA
Which weather condition can be expected when moist air flows from a relatively warm surface to a colder surface?
A) Increased visibility.
B) Convective turbulence due to surface heating.
C) Fog.

145.	I24	IRA
Which precipitation type normally indicates freezing rain at higher altitudes?
A) Snow.
B) Hail.
C) Ice pellets.

146.	I30	IRA
If you fly into severe turbulence, which flight condition should you attempt to maintain?
A) Constant airspeed (VA).
B) Level flight attitude.
C) Constant altitude and constant airspeed.

147.	I24	IRA
What enhances the growth rate of precipitation?
A) Advective action.
B) Upward currents.
C) Cyclonic movement.

148.	I27	IRA
An air mass is a body of air that
A) has similar cloud formations associated with it.
B) creates a wind shift as it moves across the Earth's surface.
C) covers an extensive area and has fairly uniform properties of temperature and moisture.

149.	I26	IRA
A high cloud is composed mostly of
A) ozone.
B) condensation nuclei.
C) ice crystals.

150.	I31	IRA
Under which condition does advection fog usually form?
A) Moist air moving over colder ground or water.
B) Warm, moist air settling over a cool surface under no wind conditions.
C) A land breeze blowing a cold air mass over a warm water current.

151.	I32	IRA
A jet stream is defined as wind of
A) 30 knots or greater.
B) 40 knots or greater.
C) 50 knots or greater.

152.	I31	IRA
Which conditions are favorable for the formation of radiation fog?
A) Moist air moving over colder ground or water.
B) Cloudy sky and a light wind moving saturated warm air over a cool surface.
C) Clear sky, little or no wind, small temperature/dew point spread, and over a land surface.

153.	I31	IRA
Which is true regarding the use of airborne weather-avoidance radar for the recognition of certain weather conditions?
A) The radarscope provides no assurance of avoiding instrument weather conditions.
B) The avoidance of hail is assured when flying between and just clear of the most intense echoes.
C) The clear area between intense echoes indicates that visual sighting of storms can be maintained when flying between the echoes.

154.	I22	IRA
Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?
A) When the atmospheric pressure is 29.92 inches Hg.
B) When standard atmospheric conditions exist.
C) When indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude.

155.	I22	IRA
Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?
A) At standard temperature.
B) When the altimeter setting is 29.92 inches Hg.
C) When indicated, and pressure altitudes are the same value on the altimeter.

156.	I21	IRA
How much colder than standard temperature is the forecast temperature at 9,000 feet, as indicated in the following excerpt from the Winds and Temperature Aloft Forecast?
FT	6000	9000
	0737-04	1043-10
A) 3 °C.
B) 10 °C.
C) 7 °C.

157.	I21	IRA
The primary cause of all changes in the Earth's weather is
A) variation of solar energy received by the Earth's regions.
B) changes in air pressure over the Earth's surface.
C) movement of the air masses.

158.	I25	IRA
What determines the structure or type of clouds which form as a result of air being forced to ascend?
A) The method by which the air is lifted.
B) The stability of the air before lifting occurs.
C) The amount of condensation nuclei present after lifting occurs.

159.	I25	IRA
Stability can be determined from which measurement of the atmosphere?
A) Low level winds.
B) Ambient lapse rate.
C) Atmospheric pressure.

160.	I27	IRA
Which is a characteristic of stable air?
A) Fair weather cumulus clouds.
B) Stratiform clouds.
C) Unlimited visibility.

161.	I27	IRA
The general characteristics of unstable air are
A) good visibility, showery precipitation, and cumuliform type clouds.
B) good visibility, steady precipitation, and stratiform type clouds.
C) poor visibility, intermittent precipitation, and cumuliform type clouds.

162.	I25	IRA
What type of clouds will be formed if very stable moist air is forced up slope?
A) First stratified clouds and then vertical clouds.
B) Vertical clouds with increasing height.
C) Stratified clouds with little vertical development.

163.	I21	IRA
What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?
A) A stable layer of air.
B) An unstable layer of air.
C) Air mass thunderstorms.

164.	I21	IRA
If the air temperature is +8 °C at an elevation of 1,350 feet and a standard (average) temperature lapse rate exists, what will be the approximate freezing level?
A) 3,350 feet MSL.
B) 5,350 feet MSL.
C) 9,350 feet MSL.

165.	I21	IRA
The most frequent type of ground or surface based temperature inversion is that produced by
A) radiation on a clear, relatively still night.
B) warm air being lifted rapidly aloft in the vicinity of mountainous terrain.
C) the movement of colder air under warm air, or the movement of warm air over cold air.

166.	I21	IRA
A common type of ground or surface based temperature inversion is that which is produced by
A) warm air being lifted rapidly aloft in the vicinity of mountainous terrain.
B) the movement of colder air over warm air, or the movement of warm air under cold air.
C) ground radiation on clear, cool nights when the wind is light.

167.	I22	IRA
Which of the following defines the type of altitude used when maintaining FL 210?
A) Indicated.
B) Pressure.
C) Calibrated.

168.	I30	IRA
Which procedure is recommended if a pilot should unintentionally penetrate embedded thunderstorm activity?
A) Reverse aircraft heading or proceed toward an area of known VFR conditions.
B) Reduce airspeed to maneuvering speed and maintain a constant altitude.
C) Set power for recommended turbulence penetration airspeed and attempt to maintain a level flight attitude.

169.	I23	IRA
Which force, in the Northern Hemisphere, acts at a right angle to the wind and deflects it to the right until parallel to the isobars?
A) Centrifugal.
B) Pressure gradient.
C) Coriolis.

170.	I23	IRA
What causes surface winds to flow across the isobars at an angle rather than parallel to the isobars?
A) Coriolis force.
B) Surface friction.
C) The greater density of the air at the surface.

171.	I24	IRA
What temperature condition is indicated if wet snow is encountered at your flight altitude?
A) The temperature is above freezing at your altitude.
B) The temperature is below freezing at your altitude.
C) You are flying from a warm air mass into a cold air mass.

172.	I24	IRA
To which meteorological condition does the term 'dew point' refer?
A) The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated.
B) The temperature at which condensation and evaporation are equal.
C) The temperature at which dew will always form.

173.	I29	IRA
Which conditions result in the formation of frost?
A) The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below freezing and small droplets of moisture are falling.
B) When dew forms and the temperature is below freezing.
C) Temperature of the collecting surface is below the dewpoint of surrounding air and the dewpoint is colder than freezing.

174.	I24	IRA
The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that
A) there are thunderstorms in the area.
B) a cold front has passed.
C) there is freezing rain at a higher altitude.

175.	I27	IRA
Steady precipitation, in contrast to showers, preceding a front is an indication of
A) stratiform clouds with moderate turbulence.
B) cummuliform clouds with little or no turbulence.
C) stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence.

176.	I20	IRA
A characteristic of the stratosphere is
A) an overall decrease of temperature with an increase in altitude.
B) a relatively even base altitude of approximately 35,000 feet.
C) relatively small changes in temperature with an increase in altitude.

177.	I56	IRA
Interpret this PIREP.
MRB UA/OV MRB/TM1430/FL060/TPC182/SK BKN BL/WX RA/TB MDT.
A) Ceiling 6,000 feet intermittently below moderate thundershowers; turbulence increasing westward.
B) FL 60,000, intermittently below clouds; moderate rain, turbulence increasing with the wind.
C) At 6,000 feet; between layers; moderate turbulence; moderate rain.

178.	I67	IRA
A pilot reporting turbulence that momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude should report it as
A) light turbulence.
B) moderate turbulence.
C) light chop.

179.	I57	IRA
Which weather forecast describes prospects for an area coverage of both severe and general thunderstorms during the following 24 hours?
A) Terminal Aerodrome Forecast.
B) Convective outlook.
C) Radar Summary Chart.

180.	I64	IRA
(Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are depicted within the area indicated by arrow B?
A) Light to moderate turbulence at and above 37,000 feet MSL.
B) Moderate turbulence from below 24,000 feet MSL to 37,000 feet MSL.
C) Moderate to severe CAT is forecast to exist at FL 370.

181.	I64	IRA
(Refer to figure 18, SFC PROG) A planned low altitude flight from northern Florida to southern Florida at 00Z is likely to encounter
A) intermittent rain or rain showers, moderate turbulence, and freezing temperatures above 8,000 feet.
B) showery precipitation, thunderstorms/rain showers covering half or more of the area.
C) showery precipitation covering less than half the area, no turbulence below 18,000 feet, and freezing temperatures above 12,000 feet.

182.	I65	IRA
What information is provided by a Convective Outlook (AC)?
A) It describes areas of probable severe icing and severe or extreme turbulence during the next 24 hours.
B) It provides prospects of both general and severe thunderstorm activity during the following 24 hours.
C) It indicates areas of probable convective turbulence and the extent of instability in the upper atmosphere (above 500 MB).

183.	I64	IRA
(Refer to figure 5.) What is the meaning of the symbol depicted as used on the U.S. Low-Level Significant Weather Prog Chart?
A) Showery precipitation (e.g. rain showers) embedded in an area of continuous rain covering half or more of the area.
B) Continuous precipitation (e.g. rain) covering half or more of the area.
C) Showery precipitation (e.g. thunderstorms/rain showers) covering half or more of the area.

184.	I64	IRA
The Low-Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart depicts weather conditions
A) that are forecast to exist at a valid time shown on the chart.
B) as they existed at the time the chart was prepared.
C) that existed at the time shown on the chart which is about 3 hours before the chart is received.

185.	J25	IRA
Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as
A) 8,000 feet per minute.
B) 7,000 feet per minute.
C) 6,000 feet per minute.

186.	J25	IRA
What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?
A) Two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute.
B) One microburst may continue for as long as 2 to 4 hours.
C) Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.

187.	I65	IRA
(Refer to figure 9.) What type of thunderstorm activity is expected over Montana on April 4th at 0800Z?
A) General.
B) None.
C) A slight risk of severe thunderstorms.

188.	I63	IRA
(Refer to figure 12.) What is the approximate wind direction and velocity at 34,000 feet (see arrow C)?
A) 290°/50 knots.
B) 330°/50 knots.
C) 090°/48 knots.

189.	I60	IRA
(Refer to figure 8.) What weather conditions are depicted in the area indicated by arrow A on the Radar Summary Chart?
A) Moderate to strong echoes; echo tops 30,000 feet MSL; line movement toward the northwest.
B) Weak to moderate echoes; average echo bases 30,000 feet MSL; cell movement toward the southeast; rain showers with thunder.
C) Strong to very strong echoes; echo tops 30,000 feet MSL; thunderstorms and rain showers.

190.	I57	IRA
Which meteorological condition is issued in the form of a SIGMET (WS)?
A) Widespread sand or dust storms lowering visibility to less than 3 miles.
B) Moderate icing.
C) Sustained winds of 30 knots or greater at the surface.

191.	I54	IRA
The Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) is a continuous broadcast over selected VORs of
A) SIGMETs, CONVECTIVE SIGMETs, AIRMETs, Severe Weather Forecasts Alerts (AWW), and Center Weather Advisories.
B) SIGMETs, CONVECTIVE SIGMETs, AIRMETs, Wind Shear Advisories, and Severe Weather Forecast Alerts (AWW).
C) Wind Shear Advisories, Radar Weather Reports, SIGMETs, CONVECTIVE SIGMETs, AIRMETs, and Center Weather Advisories (CWA).

192.	I65	IRA
(Refer to figure 9.) Using the DAY 2 CONVECTIVE OUTLOOK, what type of thunderstorms, if any, may be encountered on a flight from Montana to central California?
A) Moderate risk area, surrounded by a slight risk area, of possible severe turbulence.
B) None.
C) General.

193.	I65	IRA
(Refer to figure 9.) The Severe Weather Outlook Chart, which is used primarily for advance planning, provides what information?
A) An 18-hour categorical outlook with a 48-hour valid time for severe weather watch, thunderstorm lines, and of expected tornado activity.
B) A preliminary 12-hour outlook for severe thunderstorm activity and probable convective turbulence.
C) A 24-hour severe weather outlook for possible thunderstorm activity.

194.	I23	IRA
Hazardous wind shear is commonly encountered near the ground
A) during periods when the wind velocity is stronger than 35 knots.
B) during periods when the wind velocity is stronger than 35 knots and near mountain valleys.
C) during periods of strong temperature inversion and near thunderstorms.

195.	I60	IRA
For most effective use of the Radar Summary Chart during preflight planning, a pilot should
A) consult the chart to determine more accurate measurements of freezing levels, cloud cover, and wind conditions between reporting stations.
B) compare it with the charts, reports, and forecasts of a three-dimensional picture of clouds and precipitation.
C) utilize the chart as the only source of information regarding storms and hazardous conditions existing between reporting stations.

196.	I56	IRA
Which response most closely interprets the following PIREP?
UA/OV OKC 063064/TM 1522/FL080/TP C172/TA -04/WV 245040/TB LGT/RM IN CLR.
A) 64 nautical miles on the 63 degree radial from Oklahoma City VOR at 1522 UTC, flight level 8,000 ft. Type of aircraft is a Cessna 172.
B) Reported by a Cessna 172, turbulence and light rime icing in climb to 8,000 ft.
C) 63 nautical miles on the 64 degree radial from Oklahoma City, thunderstorm and light rain at 1522 UTC.

197.	I65	IRA
(Refer to figure 9.) The Severe Weather Outlook Chart depicts
A) areas of probable severe thunderstorms by the use of single hatched areas on the chart.
B) areas of forecast, severe or extreme turbulence, and areas of severe icing for the next 24 hours.
C) areas of general thunderstorm activity (excluding severe) by the use of hatching on the chart.

198.	I55	IRA
The station originating the following weather report has a field elevation of 1,300 feet MSL. From the bottom of the overcast cloud layer, what is its thickness? (tops of OVC are reported at 3800 feet)
SPECI KOKC 2228Z 28024G36KT 3/4SM BKN008 OVC020 28/23 A3000
A) 500 feet.
B) 1,700 feet.
C) 2,500 feet.

199.	I61	IRA
What flight planning information can a pilot derive from constant pressure charts?
A) Clear air turbulence and icing conditions.
B) Levels of widespread cloud coverage.
C) Winds and temperatures aloft.

200.	I58	IRA
The Surface Analysis Chart depicts
A) actual pressure systems, frontal locations, cloud tops, and precipitation at the time shown on the chart.
B) frontal locations and expected movement, pressure centers, cloud coverage, and obstructions to vision at the time of chart transmission.
C) actual frontal positions, pressure patterns, temperature, dew point, wind, weather, and obstructions to vision at the valid time of the chart.

201.	I63	IRA
(Refer to figure 2.) What approximate wind direction, speed, and temperature (relative to ISA) should a pilot expect when planning for a flight over EMI at FL 270?
A) 265° true; 100 knots; ISA +3 °C.
B) 270° true; 110 knots; ISA +5 °C.
C) 260° magnetic; 100 knots; ISA -5 °C.

202.	I63	IRA
Which values are used for winds aloft forecasts?
A) Magnetic direction and knots.
B) Magnetic direction and MPH.
C) True direction and knots.

203.	I63	IRA
When is the wind group at one of the forecast altitudes omitted at a specific location or station in the Winds and Temperatures Aloft Forecast (FD)? When the wind
A) is less than 5 knots.
B) is less than 10 knots.
C) at the altitude is within 1,500 feet of the station elevation.

204.	I57	IRA
What is the maximum forecast period for AIRMET's?
A) Two hours.
B) Four hours.
C) Six hours.

205.	I57	IRA
When are severe weather watch bulletins (WW) issued?
A) Every 12 hours as required.
B) Every 24 hours as required.
C) Unscheduled and issued as required.

206.	I57	IRA
Which forecast provides specific information concerning expected sky cover, cloud tops, visibility, weather, and obstructions to vision in a route format?
A) DFW FA 131240.
B) MEM TAF 132222.
C) 249 TWEB 252317.

207.	I56	IRA
A pilot planning to depart at 1100Z on an IFR flight is particularly concerned about the hazard of icing. What sources reflect the most accurate information on icing conditions (current and forecast) at the time of departure?
A) Low-Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart, and the Area Forecast.
B) The Area Forecast, and the Freezing Level Chart.
C) Pilot weather reports (PIREP's), AIRMET's, and SIGMET's.

208.	I57	IRA
Area forecasts generally include a forecast period of 18 hours and cover a geographical
A) terminal area.
B) area less than 3,000 square miles.
C) area the size of several states.

209.	I59	IRA
(Refer to figure 4.) What is the meaning of a bracket (]) plotted to the right of the station circle on a weather depiction chart?
A) The station represents the en route conditions within a 50 mile radius.
B) The station is an automated observation location.
C) The station gives local overview of flying conditions for a six hour period.

210.	I57	IRA
The reporting station originating this Aviation Routine Weather Report has a field elevation of 620 feet. If the reported sky cover is one continuous layer, what is its thickness? (tops of OVC are reported at 6500 feet)
METAR KMDW 121856Z AUTO 32005KT 1 1/2SM +RABR OVC007 17/16 A2980
A) 5,180 feet.
B) 5,800 feet.
C) 5,880 feet.

211.	I57	IRA
What is the wind shear forecast in the following TAF?
TAF
KCVG 231051Z 231212 12012KT 4SM -RA BR OVC008
WS005/27050KT TEMPO 1719 1/2SM -RA FG
FM1930 09012KT 1SM -DZ BR VV003 BECMG 2021 5SM HZ=
A) 5 feet AGL from 270° at 50 KT.
B) 50 feet AGL from 270° at 50 KT.
C) 500 feet AGL from 270° at 50 KT.

212.	I55	IRA
A ceiling is defined as the height of the
A) highest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena aloft that covers over 6/10 of the sky.
B) lowest layer of clouds that contributed to the overall overcast.
C) lowest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena aloft that is reported as broken or overcast.

213.	K04	IRA
When passing through an abrupt wind shear which involves a shift from a tailwind to a headwind, what power management would normally be required to maintain a constant indicated airspeed and ILS glide slope?
A) Higher than normal power initially, followed by a further increase as the wind shear is encountered, then a decrease.
B) Lower than normal power initially, followed by a further decrease as the wind shear is encountered, then an increase.
C) Higher than normal power initially, followed by a decrease as the shear is encountered, then an increase.

214.	I10	IRA
What effect will a change in wind direction have upon maintaining a 3° glide slope at a constant true airspeed?
A) When ground speed decreases, rate of descent must increase.
B) When ground speed increases, rate of descent must increase.
C) Rate of descent must be constant to remain on the glide slope.

215.	K04	IRA
While flying a 3° glide slope, a constant tailwind shears to a calm wind. Which conditions should the pilot expect?
A) Airspeed and pitch attitude decrease and there is a tendency to go below glide slope.
B) Airspeed and pitch attitude increase and there is a tendency to go below glide slope.
C) Airspeed and pitch attitude increase and there is a tendency to go above glide slope.

216.	K04	IRA
Thrust is managed to maintain IAS, and glide slope is being flown. What characteristics should be observed when a headwind shears to be a constant tailwind?
A) PITCH ATTITUDE: Increases; REQUIRED THRUST: Increased, then reduced; VERTICAL SPEED: Increases; IAS: Increases, then decreases to approach speed.
B) PITCH ATTITUDE: Decreases; REQUIRED THRUST: Increased, then reduced; VERTICAL SPEED: Increases; IAS: Decreases, then increases to approach speed.
C) PITCH ATTITUDE: Increases; REQUIRED THRUST: Reduced, then increased; VERTICAL SPEED: Decreases; IAS: Decreases, then increases to approach speed.

217.	J25	IRA
Pilots on IFR flights seeking ATC in flight weather avoidance assistance should keep in mind that
A) ATC radar limitations and, frequency congestion may limit the controllers capability to provide this service.
B) circumnavigating severe weather can only be accommodated in the en route areas away from terminals because of congestion.
C) ATC Narrow Band Radar does not provide the controller with weather intensity capability.

218.	K04	IRA
While flying a 3° glide slope, a headwind shears to a tailwind. Which conditions should the pilot expect on the glide slope?
A) Airspeed and pitch attitude decrease and there is a tendency to go below glide slope.
B) Airspeed and pitch attitude increase and there is a tendency to go above glide slope.
C) Airspeed and pitch attitude decrease and there is a tendency to remain on the glide slope.

219.	J25	IRA
AIRMET's are issued on a scheduled basis every
A) 15 minutes after the hour only.
B) 15 minutes until the AIRMET is canceled.
C) six hours.

220.	H303	IRA
If severe turbulence is encountered during your IFR flight, the airplane should be slowed to the design maneuvering speed because the
A) maneuverability of the airplane will be increased.
B) amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing will be decreased.
C) airplane will stall at a lower angle of attack, giving an increased margin of safety.

221.	K04	IRA
When a climb or descent through an inversion or wind shear zone is being performed, the pilot should be alert for which of the following change in airplane performance?
A) A fast rate of climb and a slow rate of descent.
B) A sudden change in airspeed.
C) A sudden surge of thrust.

222.	J08	IRA
Where are VFR on Top operations prohibited?
A) In Class A airspace.
B) During off airways direct flights.
C) When flying through Class B airspace.

223.	J08	IRA
In addition to a VOR receiver and two-way communications capability, which additional equipment is required for IFR operation in Class B airspace?
A) DME and an operable coded transponder having Mode C capability.
B) Standby communications receiver, DME, and coded transponder.
C) An operable coded transponder having Mode C capability.

224.	J06	IRA
You have filed an IFR flight plan with a VFR on Top clearance in lieu of an assigned altitude. If you receive this clearance and fly a course of 180°, at what altitude should you fly? (Assume VFR conditions.)
A) Any IFR altitude which will enable you to remain in VFR conditions.
B) An odd thousand foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet.
C) An even thousand foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet.

225.	J08	IRA
When an aircraft is not equipped with a transponder, what requirement must be met before ATC will authorize a flight within class B airspace?
A) A request for the proposed flight must be made to ATC at least 1 hour before the flight.
B) The proposed flight must be conducted when operating under instrument flight rules.
C) The proposed flight must be conducted in visual meteorological conditions (VMC).

226.	J33	IRA
Reception of signals from an off airway radio facility may be inadequate to identify the fix at the designated MEA. In this case, which altitude is designated for the fix?
A) MRA.
B) MCA.
C) MOCA.

227.	J09	IRA
MOAs are established to
A) prohibit all civil aircraft because of hazardous or secret activities.
B) separate certain military activities from IFR traffic.
C) restrict civil aircraft during periods of high density training activities.

228.	J08	IRA
What service is provided by departure control to an IFR flight when operating within the outer area of Class C airspace?
A) Separation from all aircraft.
B) Position and altitude of all traffic within 2 miles of the IFR pilot's line of flight and altitude.
C) Separation from all IFR aircraft and participating VFR aircraft.

229.	J08	IRA
The aircraft's transponder fails during flight within Class D airspace.
A) The pilot should immediately request clearance to depart the Class D airspace.
B) No deviation is required because a transponder is not required in Class D airspace.
C) Pilot must immediately request priority handling to proceed to destination.

230.	J08	IRA
Which airspace is defined as a transition area when designated in conjunction with an airport which has a prescribed IAP?
A) The Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet or more above the surface and terminating at the base of the overlying controlled airspace.
B) That Class D airspace extending from the surface and terminating at the base of the continental control area.
C) The Class C airspace extending from the surface to 700 or 1,200 feet AGL, where designated.

231.	J08	IRA
The vertical extent of the Class A airspace throughout the conterminous U.S. extends from
A) 18,000 feet to and including FL 450.
B) 18,000 feet to and including FL 600.
C) 12,500 feet to and including FL 600.

232.	J07	IRA
Class G airspace is that airspace where
A) ATC does not control air traffic.
B) ATC controls only IFR flights.
C) the minimum visibility for VFR flight is 3 miles.

233.	J08	IRA
What are the vertical limits of a transition area that is designated in conjunction with an airport having a prescribed IAP?
A) Surface to 700 feet AGL.
B) 1,200 feet AGL to the base of the overlying controlled airspace.
C) 700 feet AGL or more to the base of the overlying controlled airspace.

234.	J35	IRA
(Refer to figure 89.) What type airspace exists above Bryce Canyon Airport from the surface to 1,200 feet AGL?
A) Class D.
B) Class E.
C) Class G.

235.	J08	IRA
What minimum aircraft equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?
A) Two-way communications and Mode C transponder.
B) Two-way communications.
C) Transponder and DME.

236.	J17	IRA
What action should you take if your No. 1 VOR receiver malfunctions while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? Your aircraft is equipped with two VOR receivers. The No. 1 receiver has VOR/Localizer/Glide Slope capability, and the No. 2 receiver has only VOR/Localizer capability.
A) Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.
B) Continue the flight as cleared; no report is required.
C) Continue the approach and request a VOR or NDB approach.

237.	J08	IRA
When are you required to establish communications with the tower, (Class D airspace) if you cancel your IFR flight plan 10 miles from the destination?
A) Immediately after canceling the flight plan.
B) When advised by ARTCC.
C) Before entering Class D airspace.

238.	I22	IRA
When an altimeter is changed from 30.11inches Hg to 29.96 inches Hg, in which direction will the indicated altitude change and by what value?
A) Altimeter will indicate 15 feet lower.
B) Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower.
C) Altimeter will indicate 150 feet higher.

239.	H758	IRA
If, while in level flight, it becomes necessary to use an alternate source of static pressure vented inside the airplane, which of the following should the pilot expect?
A) The altimeter to read higher than normal.
B) The vertical speed to momentarily show a descent.
C) The vertical speed to show a climb.

240.	H808	IRA
During flight, if the pitot tube becomes clogged with ice, which of the following instruments would be affected?
A) The airspeed indicator only.
B) The airspeed indicator and the altimeter.
C) The airspeed indicator, altimeter, and Vertical Speed Indicator.

241.	H312	IRA
The local altimeter setting should be used by all pilots in a particular area, primarily to provide for
A) the cancellation of altimeter error due to nonstandard temperatures aloft.
B) better vertical separation of aircraft.
C) more accurate terrain clearance in mountainous areas.

242.	H808	IRA
At an altitude of 6,500 feet MSL, the current altimeter setting is 30.42 inches Hg. The pressure altitude would be approximately
A) 7,500 feet.
B) 6,000 feet.
C) 6,500 feet.

243.	H808	IRA
The pressure altitude at a given location is indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is set to
A) the field elevation.
B) 29.92 inches Hg.
C) the current altimeter setting.

244.	H859	IRA
If, while in level flight, it becomes necessary to use an alternate source of static pressure vented inside the airplane, which of the following should the pilot expect?
A) The altimeter and airspeed indicator to become inoperative.
B) The gyroscopic instruments to become inoperarive.
C) The vertical speed to momentarily show a climb.

245.	H808	IRA
If the outside air temperature increases during a flight at constant power and at a constant indicated altitude, the true airspeed will
A) decrease and true altitude will increase.
B) increase and true altitude will decrease.
C) increase and true altitude will increase.

246.	L57	IRA
If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked, what airspeed indication can be expected?
A) No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight even if large power changes are made.
B) Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb.
C) Constant indicated airspeed during a descent.

247.	L57	IRA
If both the ram air input and the drain hole of the pitot system are blocked, what reaction should you observe on the airspeed indicator when power is applied and a climb is initiated out of severe icing conditions?
A) The indicated airspeed would show a continuous deceleration while climbing.
B) The airspeed would drop to, and remain at, zero.
C) No change until an actual climb rate is established, then indicated airspeed will increase.

248.	H810	IRA
What information does a Mach meter present?
A) The ratio of aircraft true airspeed to the speed of sound.
B) The ratio of aircraft indicated airspeed to the speed of sound.
C) The ratio of aircraft equivalent airspeed, corrected for installation error, to the speed of sound.

249.	J26	IRA
If you are departing from an airport where you cannot obtain an altimeter setting, you should set your altimeter
A) on 29.92 inches Hg.
B) on the current airport barometric pressure, if known.
C) to the airport elevation.

250.	H808	IRA
How can you obtain the pressure altitude on flights below 18,000 feet?
A) Set your altimeter to 29.92 inches Hg.
B) Use your computer to change the indicated altitude to pressure altitude.
C) Contact an FSS and ask for the pressure altitude.

251.	J21	IRA
During an IFR flight in IMC, a distress condition is encountered, (fire, mechanical, or structural failure). The pilot should
A) not hesitate to declare an emergency and obtain an amended clearance.
B) wait until the situation is immediately perilous before declaring an emergency.
C) contact ATC and advise that an urgency condition exists and request priority consideration.

252.	H808	IRA
What would be the indication on the VSI during entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level flight if the static ports were iced over?
A) The indication would be in reverse of the actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).
B) The initial indication would be a climb, then descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.
C) The VSI pointer would remain at zero regardless of the actual rate of descent.

253.	J24	IRA
Which procedure should you follow if, during an IFR flight in VFR conditions, you have two way radio communications failure?
A) Continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable.
B) Continue the flight at assigned altitude and route, start approach at your ETA, or, if late, start approach upon arrival.
C) Land at the nearest airport that has VFR conditions.

254.	J21	IRA
Which procedure should you follow if you experience two-way communications failure while holding at a holding fix with an EFC time? (The holding fix is not the same as the approach fix.)
A) Depart the holding fix to arrive at the approach fix as close as possible to the EFC time.
B) Depart the holding fix at the EFC time.
C) Proceed immediately to the approach fix and hold until EFC.

255.	V14	IRA
Under which conditions is hydroplaning most likely to occur?
A) When rudder is used for directional control instead of allowing the nosewheel to contact the surface early in the landing roll on a wet runway.
B) During conditions of standing water, slush, high speed, and smooth runway texture.
C) During a landing on any wet runway when brake application is delayed until a wedge of water begins to build ahead of the tires.

256.	J21	IRA
During an IFR flight in IMC, you enter a holding pattern (at a fix that is not the same as the approach fix) with an EFC time of 1530. At 1520 you experience complete two-way communications failure. Which procedure should you follow to execute the approach to a landing?
A) Depart the holding fix to arrive at the approach fix as close as possible to the EFC time and complete the approach.
B) Depart the holding fix at the EFC time, and complete the approach.
C) Depart the holding fix at the earliest of the flight planned ETA or the EFC time, and complete the approach.

257.	J40	IRA
(Refer to figure 85.) What procedure should be followed if communications are lost before reaching 9,000 feet?
A) At 9,000, turn left direct to FMG VORTAC, then via assigned route if at proper altitude; if not, climb in holding pattern until reaching the proper altitude.
B) Continue climb to WAGGE INT, turn left direct to FMG VORTAC, then if at or above MCA, proceed on assigned route; if not, continue climb in holding pattern until at the proper altitude.
C) Continue climb on LOC course to cross WAGGE INT at or above 9,000, turn left direct to FMG VORTAC to cross at 10,000 or above, and continue on assigned course.

258.	J24	IRA
You are in IMC and have two way radio communications failure. If you do not exercise emergency authority, what procedure are you expected to follow?
A) Set transponder to code 7600, continue flight on assigned route and fly at the last assigned altitude or the MEA, whichever is higher.
B) Set transponder to code 7700 for 1 minute, then to 7600, and fly to an area with VFR weather conditions.
C) Set transponder to 7700 and fly to an area where you can let down in VFR conditions.

259.	J24	IRA
What altitude and route should be used if you are flying in IMC and have two way radio communications failure?
A) Continue on the route specified in your clearance, fly at an altitude that is the highest of last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed you to expect, or the MEA.
B) Fly direct to an area that has been forecast to have VFR conditions, fly at an altitude that is at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacles along the route.
C) Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of clouds, maintain the highest of the MEA's along the clearance route.

260.	J14	IRA
While on an IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken?
A) Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as possible.
B) Squawk 7700 for the duration of the emergency.
C) Submit a detailed report to the chief of the ATC facility within 48 hours.

261.	J03	IRA
The operation of an airport rotating beacon during daylight hours may indicate that
A) the in flight visibility is less than 3 miles and the ceiling is less than 1,500 feet within Class E airspace.
B) the ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet in Class B, C, or D airspace.
C) an IFR clearance is required to operate within the airport traffic area.

262.	J15	IRA
From what source can you obtain the latest FDC NOTAM's?
A) Notices to Airmen publications.
B) FAA AFSS/FSS.
C) Airport/Facility Directory.

263.	J34	IRA
(Refer to figure 58.) On which frequencies could you communicate with the Montgomery County FSS while on the ground at College Station?
A) 122.65, 122.2, 122.1, 113.3.
B) 122.65, 122.2.
C) 118.5, 122.65, 122.2.

264.	J11	IRA
If a control tower and an FSS are located on the same airport, which function is provided by the FSS during those periods when the tower is closed?
A) Automatic closing of the IFR flight plan.
B) Approach control services.
C) Airport Advisory Service.

265.	J34	IRA
(Refer to figures 59 and 60.) What are the operating hours (local standard time) of the Houston EFAS?
A) 0600 to 2200.
B) 0700 to 2300.
C) 1800 to 1000.

266.	J34	IRA
(Refer to figure 68.) What is the VASI approach slope angle for RWY 12 at Houma Terrebonne?
A) 3.0°.
B) 2.8°.
C) 2.5°.

267.	J03	IRA
If an approach is being made to a runway that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all the VASI lights appear red as the aircraft reaches the MDA, the pilot should
A) start a climb to reach the proper glidepath.
B) continue at the same rate of descent if the runway is in sight.
C) level off momentarily to intercept the proper approach path.

268.	J03	IRA
Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?
A) One light projector with three colors: red, green, and amber.
B) Two visual glidepaths for the runway.
C) Three glidepaths, with the center path indicated by a white light.

269.	J27	IRA
What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time?
A) Direct headwind.
B) Direct tailwind.
C) Light quartering tailwind.

270.	J27	IRA
Wake turbulence is near maximum behind a jet transport just after takeoff because
A) the engines are at maximum thrust output at slow airspeed.
B) the gear and flap configuration increases the turbulence to maximum.
C) of the high angle of attack and high gross weight.

271.	J03	IRA
(Refer to figure 134.) Unless a higher angle is necessary for obstacle clearance, what is the normal glidepath angle for a 2 bar VASI?
A) 2.75°.
B) 3.00°.
C) 3.25°.

272.	J27	IRA
When landing behind a large jet aircraft, at which point on the runway should you plan to land?
A) If any crosswind, land on the windward side of the runway and prior to the jet's touchdown point.
B) At least 1,000 feet beyond the jet's touchdown point.
C) Beyond the jet's touchdown point.

273.	J03	IRA
Which of the following indications would a pilot see while approaching to land on a runway served by a 2 bar VASI?
A) If on the glidepath, the near bars will appear red, and the far bars will appear white.
B) If departing to the high side of the glidepath, the far bars will change from red to white.
C) If on the glidepath, both near bars and far bars will appear white.

274.	J03	IRA
The middle and far bars of a 3 bar VASI will
A) both appear white to the pilot when on the upper glidepath.
B) constitute a 2 bar VASI for using the lower glidepath.
C) constitute a 2 bar VASI for using the upper glidepath.

275.	J03	IRA
Tricolor Visual Approach Indicators normally consist of
A) a single unit, projecting a three color visual approach path.
B) three separate light units, each projecting a different color approach path.
C) three separate light projecting units of very high candle power with a daytime range of approximately 5 miles.

276.	J03	IRA
When on the proper glidepath of a 2 bar VASI, the pilot will see the near bar as
A) white and the far bar as red.
B) red and the far bar as white.
C) white and the far bar as white.

277.	J27	IRA
What effect would a light crosswind of approximately 7 knots have on vortex behavior?
A) The light crosswind would rapidly dissipate vortex strength.
B) The upwind vortex would tend to remain over the runway.
C) The downwind vortex would tend to remain over the runway.

278.	J03	IRA
(Refer to figure 135.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is below both glidepaths?
A) 4.
B) 5.
C) 6.

279.	J03	IRA
The primary purpose of runway end identifier lights, installed at many airfields, is to provide
A) rapid identification of the approach end of the runway during reduced visibility.
B) a warning of the final 3,000 feet of runway remaining as viewed from the takeoff or approach position.
C) rapid identification of the primary runway during reduced visibility.

280.	J05	IRA
(Refer to figure 138.) What night operations, if any, are authorized between the approach end of the runway and the threshold lights?
A) No aircraft operations are permitted short of the threshold lights.
B) Only taxi operations are permitted in the area short of the threshold lights.
C) Taxi and takeoff operations are permitted, providing the takeoff operations are toward the visible green threshold lights.

281.	J05	IRA
Which runway marking indicates a displaced threshold on an instrument runway?
A) Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
B) Centerline dashes starting at the threshold.
C) Red chevron marks in the nonlanding portion of the runway.

282.	J05	IRA
(Refer to figure 137.) What is the distance (C) from the beginning of the touchdown zone marker to the beginning of the fixed distance marker?
A) 1,000 feet.
B) 500 feet.
C) 250 feet.

283.	J05	IRA
(Refer to figure 137.) What is the distance (B) from the beginning of the runway to the touchdown zone marker?
A) 250 feet.
B) 500 feet.
C) 750 feet.

284.	J03	IRA
(Refer to figure 135.) Unless a higher angle is required for obstacle clearance, what is the normal glidepath for a 3 bar VASI?
A) 2.3°.
B) 2.75°.
C) 3.0°.

285.	J03	IRA
(Refer to figure 135.) Which illustration would a pilot observe when on the lower glidepath?
A) 4.
B) 5.
C) 6.

286.	J03	IRA
(Refer to figure 135.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is above both glidepaths?
A) 5.
B) 6.
C) 7.

287.	J03	IRA
Which type of runway lighting consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights, one on each side of the runway threshold?
A) RAIL.
B) HIRL.
C) REIL.

288.	J03	IRA
Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?
A) Continuation of course guidance after transition to VFR.
B) Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area.
C) Course guidance from the visual descent point to touchdown.

289.	J03	IRA
(Refer to figure 136.) Which illustration depicts an 'on glidepath' indication?
A) 8.
B) 10.
C) 11.

290.	J03	IRA
(Refer to figure 136.) Which illustration depicts a 'slightly low' (2.8°) indication?
A) 9.
B) 10.
C) 11.

291.	J03	IRA
(Refer to figure 136.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is on a glidepath higher than 3.5°?
A) 8.
B) 9.
C) 11.

292.	J03	IRA
(Refer to figure 136.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is 'slightly high' (3.2°) on the glidepath?
A) 8.
B) 9.
C) 11.

293.	J03	IRA
(Refer to figure 136.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is less than 2.5°?
A) 10.
B) 11.
C) 12.

294.	J05	IRA
(Refer to figure 137.) What is the distance (A) from the beginning of the runway to the fixed distance marker?
A) 500 feet.
B) 1,000 feet.
C) 1,500 feet.

295.	J35	IRA
(Refer to figure 91.) What is the function of the Great Falls RCO (Yellowstone vicinity)?
A) Long range communications outlet for Great Falls Center.
B) Remote communications outlet for Great Falls FSS.
C) Satellite remote controlled by Salt Lake Center with limited service.

296.	J13	IRA
When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff?
A) When visibility is less than 1 mile.
B) When parallel runways are in use.
C) When departing from a runway intersection.

297.	J19	IRA
What responsibility does the pilot in command of an IFR flight assume upon entering VFR conditions?
A) Report VFR conditions to ARTCC so that an amended clearance may be issued.
B) Use VFR operating procedures.
C) To see and avoid other traffic.

298.	J03	IRA
(Refer to figure 91.) What lighting is indicated on the chart for Jackson Hole Airport?
A) Lights on prior request.
B) No lighting available.
C) Pilot controlled lighting.

299.	J05	IRA
(Refer to figure 94.) What colors are runway holding position signs?
A) White with a red background.
B) Red with a white background.
C) Yellow with a black background.

300.	J05	IRA
(Refer to figure 94.) Mandatory airport instruction signs are designated by having
A) yellow lettering with a black background.
B) white lettering with a red background.
C) black lettering with a yellow background.

301.	J05	IRA
(Refer to figure 94.) What sign is designated by illustration 7?
A) Location sign.
B) Mandatory instruction sign.
C) Direction sign.

302.	J05	IRA
(Refer to figure 94.) Hold line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of four lines that extend across the width of the taxiway. These lines are
A) white, and the dashed lines are nearest the runway.
B) yellow, and the dashed lines are nearest the runway.
C) yellow, and the solid lines are nearest the runway.

303.	J31	IRA
An abrupt change from climb to straight-and-level flight can create the illusion of
A) tumbling backwards.
B) a noseup attitude.
C) a descent with the wings level.

304.	J31	IRA
A sloping cloud formation, an obscured horizon, and a dark scene spread with ground lights and stars can create an illusion known as
A) elevator illusions.
B) autokinesis.
C) false horizons.

305.	J31	IRA
Why is hypoxia particularly dangerous during flights with one pilot?
A) Night vision may be so impaired that the pilot cannot see other aircraft.
B) Symptoms of hypoxia may be difficult to recognize before the pilot's reactions are affected.
C) The pilot may not be able to control the aircraft even if using oxygen.

306.	J31	IRA
The sensations which lead to spatial disorientation during instrument flight conditions
A) are frequently encountered by beginning instrument pilots, but never by pilots with moderate instrument experience.
B) occur, in most instances, during the initial period of transition from visual to instrument flight.
C) must be suppressed and complete reliance placed on the indications of the flight instruments.

307.	J31	IRA
Abrupt head movement during a prolonged constant rate turn in IMC or simulated instrument conditions can cause
A) pilot disorientation.
B) false horizon.
C) elevator illusion.

308.	J31	IRA
A rapid acceleration during takeoff can create the illusion of
A) spinning in the opposite direction.
B) being in a noseup attitude.
C) diving into the ground.

309.	J31	IRA
What action should be taken if hyperventilation is suspected?
A) Breathe at a slower rate by taking very deep breaths.
B) Consciously breathe at a slower rate than normal.
C) Consciously force yourself to take deep breaths and breathe at a faster rate than normal.

310.	J31	IRA
What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?
A) Haze causes the eyes to focus at infinity, making terrain features harder to see.
B) The eyes tend to overwork in haze and do not detect relative movement easily.
C) Haze creates the illusion of being a greater distance than actual from the runway, and causes pilots to fly a lower approach.

311.	J31	IRA
What visual illusion creates the same effect as a narrower than usual runway?
A) An upsloping runway.
B) A wider than usual runway.
C) A downsloping runway.

312.	J31	IRA
How can an instrument pilot best overcome spatial disorientation?
A) Rely on kinesthetic sense.
B) Use a very rapid cross check.
C) Read and interpret the flight instruments, and act accordingly.

313.	J31	IRA
Which statement is correct regarding the use of cockpit lighting for night flight?
A) Reducing the lighting intensity to a minimum level will eliminate blind spots.
B) The use of regular white light, such as a flashlight, will impair night adaptation.
C) Coloration shown on maps is least affected by the use of direct red lighting.

314.	J31	IRA
A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation if
A) kinesthetic senses are ignored.
B) eyes are moved often in the process of cross checking the flight instruments.
C) body signals are used to interpret flight attitude.

315.	J31	IRA
How can an instrument pilot best overcome spatial disorientation?
A) Use a very rapid cross check.
B) Properly interpret the flight instruments and act accordingly.
C) Avoid banking in excess of 30°.

316.	J31	IRA
Which use of cockpit lighting is correct for night flight?
A) Reducing the interior lighting intensity to a minimum level.
B) The use of regular white light, such as a flashlight, will not impair night adaptation.
C) Coloration shown on maps is least affected by the use of direct red lighting.

317.	J31	IRA
Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation?
A) Reduce head and eye movements to the extent possible.
B) Rely on the kinesthetic sense.
C) Rely on the indications of the flight instruments.

318.	H800	IRA
Without visual aid, a pilot often interprets centrifugal force as a sensation of
A) rising or falling.
B) turning.
C) motion reversal.

319.	J31	IRA
Due to visual illusion, when landing on a narrower than usual runway, the aircraft will appear to be
A) higher than actual, leading to a lower than normal approach.
B) lower than actual, leading to a higher than normal approach.
C) higher than actual, leading to a higher than normal approach.

320.	J01	IRA
Which distance is displayed by the DME indicator?
A) Slant range distance in NM.
B) Slant range distance in SM.
C) Line of sight direct distance from aircraft to VORTAC in SM.

321.	J24	IRA
While flying on an IFR flight plan, you experience two-way communications radio failure while in VFR conditions. In this situation, you should continue your flight under
A) VFR and land as soon as practicable.
B) VFR and proceed to your flight plan destination.
C) IFR and maintain the last assigned route and altitude to your flight plan destination.

322.	J02	IRA
When is a pilot on an IFR flight plan responsible for avoiding other aircraft?
A) At all times when not in radar contact with ATC.
B) When weather conditions permit, regardless of whether operating under IFR or VFR.
C) Only when advised by ATC.

323.	J11	IRA
During a flight, the controller advises 'traffic 2 o'clock 5 miles southbound.' The pilot is holding 20° correction for a crosswind from the right. Where should the pilot look for the traffic?
A) 40° to the right of the aicraft's nose.
B) 20° to the right of the aircraft's nose.
C) Straight ahead.

324.	J07	IRA
Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding altitude and course to be maintained during an off airways IFR flight over nonmountainous terrain?
A) 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 4 NM of course.
B) 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 5 SM of course.
C) 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 3 NM of course.

325.	J14	IRA
When may ATC request a detailed report of an emergency even though a rule has not been violated?
A) When priority has been given.
B) Any time an emergency occurs.
C) When the emergency occurs in controlled airspace.

326.	J40	IRA
(Refer to figure 77.) At which minimum altitude should you cross the STAKK intersection?
A) 6,500 feet MSL.
B) 1,400 feet MSL.
C) 10,200 feet MSL.

327.	J15	IRA
Which types of airspace are depicted on the En Route Low Altitude Chart?
A) Limits of controlled airspace, military training routes and special use airspace.
B) Class A, special use airspace, Class D and Class E.
C) Special use airspace, Class E, Class D, Class A, Class B and Class C.

328.	J06	IRA
What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?
A) To provide the latest information on the status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities for scheduled broadcasts.
B) To issue notices for all airports and navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.
C) To advise of changes in flight data which affect instrument approach procedure (IAP), aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior to normal publication.

329.	J14	IRA
On the runup pad, you receive the following clearance from ground control:
CLEARED TO THE DALLAS LOVE AIRPORT AS FILED - MAINTAIN SIX THOUSAND - SQUAWK ZERO SEVEN ZERO FOUR JUST BEFORE DEPARTURE - DEPARTURE CONTROL WILL BE ONE TWO FOUR POINT NINER. An abbreviated clearance, such as this, will always contain the
A) requested enroute altitude.
B) departure control frequency.
C) destination airport and route.

330.	J33	IRA
What does the ATC term 'Radar Contact' signify?
A) Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in contact with this radar facility.
B) Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight following will be provided until radar identification is terminated.
C) You will be given traffic advisories until advised the service has been terminated or that radar contact has been lost.

331.	J34	IRA
(Refer to figures 76 and 77.) Which en route low altitude navigation chart would cover the proposed routing at the BOZEMAN VORTAC?
A) L 2.
B) L 7.
C) L 9.

332.	J01	IRA
(Refer to figure 76.) Which indication would be an acceptable accuracy check of both VOR receivers when the aircraft is located on the VOR receiver checkpoint at the Helena Regional Airport?
A) A.
B) B.
C) C.

333.	J15	IRA
For IFR planning purposes, what are the compulsory reporting points when using VOR/DME or VORTAC fixes to define a direct route not on established airways?
A) Fixes selected to define the route.
B) There are no compulsory reporting points unless advised by ATC.
C) At the changeover points.

334.	J15	IRA
What is the recommended procedure for transitioning from VFR to IFR on a composite flight plan?
A) Prior to transitioning to IFR, contact the nearest FSS, close the VFR portion, and request ATC clearance.
B) Upon reaching the proposed point for change to IFR, contact the nearest FSS and cancel your VFR flight plan, then contact ARTCC and request an IFR clearance.
C) Prior to reaching the proposed point for change to IFR, contact ARTCC, request your IFR clearance, and instruct them to cancel the VFR flight plan.

335.	J01	IRA
Where does the DME indicator have the greatest error between ground distance to the VORTAC and displayed distance?
A) High altitudes far from the VORTAC.
B) High altitudes close to the VORTAC.
C) Low altitudes far from the VORTAC.

336.	J33	IRA
What is meant when departure control instructs you to 'resume own navigation' after you have been vectored to a Victor airway?
A) You should maintain the airway by use of your navigation equipment.
B) Radar service is terminated.
C) You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.

337.	J15	IRA
How is your flight plan closed when your destination airport has IFR conditions and there is no control tower or flight service station (FSS) on the field?
A) The ARTCC controller will close your flight plan when you report the runway in sight.
B) You may close your flight plan any time after starting the approach by contacting any FSS or ATC facility.
C) Upon landing, you must close your flight plan by radio or by telephone to any FSS or ATC facility.

338.	J16	IRA
When departing from an airport not served by a control tower, the issuance of a clearance containing a void time indicates that
A) ATC will assume the pilot has not departed if no transmission is received before the void time.
B) the pilot must advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes, of their intentions if not off by the void time.
C) ATC will protect the airspace only to the void time.

339.	H814	IRA
You check the flight instruments while taxiing and find that the vertical speed indicator (VSI) indicates a descent of 100 feet per minute. In this case, you
A) must return to the parking area and have the instrument corrected by an authorized instrument repairman.
B) may take off and use 100 feet descent as the zero indication.
C) may not take off until the instrument is corrected by either the pilot or a mechanic.

340.	J14	IRA
What response is expected when ATC issues an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
A) Read back the entire clearance as required by regulation.
B) Read back those parts containing altitude assignments or vectors and any part requiring verification.
C) Read back should be unsolicited and spontaneous to confirm that the pilot understands all instructions.

341.	J16	IRA
Which information is always given in an abbreviated departure clearance?
A) DP or transition name and altitude to maintain.
B) Name of destination airport or specific fix and altitude.
C) Altitude to maintain and code to squawk.

342.	J01	IRA
How should the pilot make a VOR receiver check when the aircraft is located on the designated checkpoint on the airport surface?
A) With the aircraft headed directly toward the VOR and the OBS set to 000°, the CDI should center within plus or minus 4° of that radial with a TO indication.
B) Set the OBS on the designated radial. The CDI must center within plus or minus 4° of that radial with a FROM indication.
C) Set the OBS on 180° plus or minus 4°; the CDI should center with a FROM indication.

343.	J01	IRA
In which publication can the VOR receiver ground checkpoint(s) for a particular airport be found?
A) Airman's Information Manual.
B) En Route Low Altitude Chart.
C) Airport/Facility Directory.

344.	J01	IRA
When using VOT to make a VOR receiver check, the CDI should be centered and the OBS should indicate that the aircraft is on the
A) 090 radial.
B) 180 radial.
C) 360 radial.

345.	J12	IRA
What does declaring 'minimum fuel' to ATC imply?
A) Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport.
B) Emergency handling is required to the nearest useable airport.
C) Merely an advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should any undue delay occur.

346.	J14	IRA
Which clearance items are always given in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance? (Assume radar environment.)
A) Altitude, destination airport, and one or more fixes which identify the initial route of flight.
B) Destination airport, altitude, DP Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.
C) Clearance limit, DP Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

347.	J14	IRA
When ATC has not imposed any climb or descent restrictions and aircraft are within 1,000 feet of assigned altitude, pilots should attempt to both climb and descend at a rate of between
A) 500 feet per minute and 1,000 feet per minute.
B) 500 feet per minute and 1,500 feet per minute.
C) 1000 feet per minute and 2,000 feet per minute.

348.	J01	IRA
Which is the maximum tolerance for the VOR indication when the CDI is centered and the aircraft is directly over the airborne checkpoint?
A) Plus or minus 6° of the designated radial.
B) Plus or minus 4° of the designated radial.
C) Plus 6° or minus 4° of the designated radial.

349.	J15	IRA
When may a pilot file a composite flight plan?
A) When requested or advised by ATC.
B) Any time a portion of the flight will be VFR.
C) Any time a landing is planned at an intermediate airport.

350.	J01	IRA
For operations off established airways at 17,000 feet MSL in the contiguous U.S., (H) Class VORTAC facilities used to define a direct route of flight should be no farther apart than
A) 75 NM.
B) 100 NM.
C) 200 NM.

351.	J11	IRA
When should your transponder be on Mode C while on an IFR flight?
A) Only when ATC requests Mode C.
B) At all times if the equipment has been calibrated, unless requested otherwise by ATC.
C) When passing 12,500 feet MSL.

352.	J16	IRA
Which procedure applies to instrument departure procedures?
A) Instrument departure clearances will not be issued unless requested by the pilot.
B) The pilot in command must accept an instrument departure procedure when issued by ATC.
C) If an instrument departure procedure is accepted, the pilot must possess at least a textual description.

353.	J01	IRA
How should the pilot make a VOR receiver check when the aircraft is located on the designated checkpoint on the airport surface?
A) Set the OBS on 180° plus or minus 4°; the CDI should center with a FROM indication.
B) Set the OBS on the designated radial. The CDI must center within plus or minus 4° of that radial with a FROM indication.
C) With the aircraft headed directly toward the VOR and the OBS set to 000°, the CDI should center within plus or minus 4° of that radial with a TO indication.

354.	J16	IRA
During a takeoff into IFR conditions with low ceilings, when should the pilot contact departure control?
A) Before penetrating the clouds.
B) When advised by the tower.
C) Upon completing the first turn after takeoff or upon establishing cruise climb on a straight out departure.

355.	J15	IRA
What action is recommended if a pilot does not wish to use an instrument departure procedure?
A) Advise clearance delivery or ground control before departure.
B) Advise departure control upon initial contact.
C) Enter 'No DP' in the REMARKS section of the IFR flight plan.

356.	J33	IRA
What does the Runway Visual Range (RVR) value, depicted on certain straight in IAP Charts, represent?
A) The slant range distance the pilot can see down the runway while crossing the threshold on glide slope.
B) The horizontal distance a pilot should see when looking down the runway from a moving aircraft.
C) The slant visual range a pilot should see down the final approach and during landing.

357.	J42	IRA
(Refer to figure 55.) Under which condition should a missed approach procedure be initiated if the runway environment (Paso Robles Municipal Airport) is not in sight?
A) After descending to 1,440 feet MSL.
B) After descent to 1,440 feet or reaching the 1 NM DME, whichever occurs first.
C) When you reach the established missed approach point and determine the visibility is less than 1 mile.

358.	J26	IRA
What is the procedure for setting the altimeter when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or higher on a direct flight off airways?
A) Set the altimeter to 29.92 inches Hg before takeoff.
B) Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then set to 29.92 inches Hg.
C) Set the altimeter to the current reported setting for climb-out and 29.92 inches Hg upon reaching 18,000 feet.

359.	J34	IRA
Preferred IFR routes beginning with a fix, indicate that departing aircraft will normally be routed to the fix by
A) the established airway(s) between the departure airport and the fix.
B) an instrument departure procedure (DP), or radar vectors.
C) direct route only.

360.	J14	IRA
What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads '... CRUISE SIX THOUSAND ...'?
A) The pilot must maintain 6,000 feet until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute the published approach procedure.
B) Climbs may be made to, or descents made from, 6,000 feet at the pilot's discretion.
C) The pilot may utilize any altitude from the MEA/MOCA to 6,000 feet, but each change in altitude must be reported to ATC.

361.	J14	IRA
What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads '...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...'?
A) The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute the published approach procedure.
B) It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000.
C) The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000, but each change in altitude must be reported to ATC.

362.	J42	IRA
(Refer to figure 68.) What would be the approach minimums if you must use the Moisant Field altimeter settings?
A) 440 1.
B) 480 and 1/2.
C) 580 and 1/2.

363.	J42	IRA
(Refer to figure 68.) Upon which maximum airspeed is the COPTER VOR/DME 117° approach category based?
A) 80 knots.
B) 90 knots.
C) 100 knots.

364.	J11	IRA
Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast specifically implies that
A) the ceiling is more than 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more.
B) the sky condition is clear and visibility is unrestricted.
C) the ceiling is at least 3,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more.

365.	J15	IRA
For which speed variation should you notify ATC?
A) When the ground speed changes more than 5 knots.
B) When the average true airspeed changes 5 percent or 10 knots, whichever is greater.
C) Any time the ground speed changes 10 MPH.

366.	J34	IRA
(Refer to figure 72.) How many precision approach procedures are published for Bradley International Airport?
A) One.
B) Three.
C) Four.

367.	J14	IRA
Which clearance procedures may be issued by ATC without prior pilot request?
A) DP's, STAR's, and contact approaches.
B) Contact and visual approaches.
C) DP's, STAR's, and visual approaches.

368.	J01	IRA
(Refer to figure 58.) Which indications on the VOR receivers and DME at the Easterwood Field VOR receiver checkpoint would meet the regulatory requirement for this flight?
VOR	TO/FROM	VOR	TO/FROM	DME
No. 1				No. 2
A) 097° FROM 101° FROM 3.3
B) 097° TO 096° TO 3.2
C) 277° FROM 280° FROM 3.3

369.	J14	IRA
What cruising altitude is appropriate for VFR on Top on a westbound flight below 18,000 feet?
A) Even thousand foot levels.
B) Even thousand foot levels plus 500 feet, but not below MEA.
C) Odd thousand foot levels plus 500 feet, but not below MEA.

370.	J42	IRA
(Refer to figure 55.) Under which condition should a missed approach procedure be initiated if the runway environment (Paso Robles Municipal Airport) is not in sight?
A) After descending to 1,440 feet MSL.
B) After descent to 1,440 feet or reaching the 1 NM DME, whichever occurs first.
C) When you reach the established missed approach point and determine the visibility is less than 1/2 mile.

371.	J33	IRA
What is the definition of MEA?
A) The lowest published altitude which meets obstacle clearance requirements and assures acceptable navigational signal coverage.
B) The lowest published altitude which meets obstacle requirements, assures acceptable navigational signal coverage, two way radio communications, and provides adequate radar coverage.
C) An altitude which meets obstacle clearance requirements, assures acceptable navigation signal coverage, two way radio communications, adequate radar coverage, and accurate DME mileage.

372.	J19	IRA
What altitude may a pilot select upon receiving a VFR on Top clearance?
A) Any altitude at least 1,000 feet above the meteorological condition.
B) Any appropriate VFR altitude at or above the MEA in VFR weather conditions.
C) Any VFR altitude appropriate for the direction of flight at least 1,000 feet above the meteorological condition.

373.	J33	IRA
The altitude that that provides acceptable navigational signal coverage for the route, and meets obstacle clearance requirements, is the minimum:
A) obstacle clearance altitude.
B) reception altitude.
C) enroute altitude.

374.	J33	IRA
If no MCA is specified, what is the lowest altitude for crossing a radio fix, beyond which a higher minimum applies?
A) The MEA at which the fix is approached.
B) The MRA at which the fix is approached.
C) The MOCA for the route segment beyond the fix.

375.	J26	IRA
How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to an IFR flight?
A) Set the altimeter to 29.92 inches Hg. With current temperature and the altimeter indication, determine the true altitude to compare with the field elevation.
B) Set the altimeter first with 29.92 inches Hg and then the current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should correspond to the change in setting.
C) Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting. The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual elevation for acceptable accuracy.

376.	J42	IRA
(Refer to figures 29.) What is the TDZ elevation for RWY 16 on Eugene/Mahlon Sweet Field?
A) 363 feet MSL.
B) 365 feet MSL.
C) 396 feet MSL.

377.	J15	IRA
When may a pilot cancel the IFR flight plan prior to completing the flight?
A) Any time.
B) Only if an emergency occurs.
C) Only in VFR conditions when not in Class A airspace.

378.	J40	IRA
(Refer to figure 30.) Which restriction to the use of the OED VORTAC would be applicable to the (GNATS1.MOURN) departure?
A) R 333 beyond 30 NM below 6,500 feet.
B) R 210 beyond 35 NM below 8,500 feet.
C) R 251 within 15 NM below 6,100 feet.

379.	J14	IRA
Which rules apply to the pilot in command when operating on a VFR on Top clearance?
A) VFR only.
B) VFR and IFR.
C) VFR when 'in the clear' and IFR when 'in the clouds.'

380.	J42	IRA
(Refer to figure 73.) Which runway and landing environment lighting is available for approach and landing on RWY 6 at Bradley International?
A) HIRL, REIL, and VASI.
B) HIRL and VASI.
C) ALSF2 and HIRL.

381.	J42	IRA
(Refer to figure 73.) After passing the OM, Bradley Approach Control advises you that the MM on the ILS RWY 6 approach is inoperative. Under these circumstances, what adjustments, if any, are required to be made to the DH and visibility?
A) DH 424/24.
B) No adjustments are required.
C) DH 374/24.

382.	J15	IRA
(Refer to figure 1.) Which equipment determines the code to be entered in block 3 as a suffix to aircraft type on the flight plan form?
A) DME, ADF, and airborne radar.
B) DME, transponder, and ADF.
C) DME, transponder, and RNAV.

383.	J26	IRA
En route at FL 290, the altimeter is set correctly, but not reset to the local altimeter setting of 30.57 inches Hg during descent. If the field elevation is 650 feet and the altimeter is functioning properly, what is the approximate indication upon landing?
A) 715 feet.
B) 1,300 feet.
C) Sea level.

384.	J01	IRA
(Refer to figure 73.) Which sequence of marker beacon indicator lights, and their respective codes, will you receive on the ILS RWY 6 approach procedure to the MAP?
A) Blue - alternate dots and dashes; amber - dashes.
B) Amber - alternate dots and dashes; blue - dashes.
C) Blue - dashes; amber - alternate dots and dashes.

385.	J11	IRA
When are ATIS broadcasts updated?
A) Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below basic VFR; otherwise, hourly.
B) Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values.
C) Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a reportable value.

386.	J26	IRA
While you are flying at FL 250, you hear ATC give an altimeter setting of 28.92 inches Hg in your area. At what pressure altitude are you flying?
A) 24,000 feet.
B) 25,000 feet.
C) 26,000 feet.

387.	J35	IRA
(Refer to figure 87.) Why is the localizer back course at Jefferson County rport depicted?
A) The back course is not aligned with a runway.
B) The back course has a glide slope.
C) The back course has an additional navigation function.

388.	H816	IRA
Which instruments are considered to be supporting instruments for pitch during change of airspeed in a level turn?
A) Airspeed indicator and VSI.
B) Altimeter and attitude indicator.
C) Attitude indicator and VSI.

389.	H816	IRA
What is the primary bank instrument once a standard-rate turn is established?
A) Attitude indicator.
B) Turn coordinator.
C) Heading indicator.

390.	H826	IRA
If a helicopter is in an unusual flight attitude and the attitude indicator has exceeded its limits, which instruments should be relied on to determine pitch attitude before starting recovery?
A) Turn indicator and VSI.
B) Airspeed, VSI and altimeter.
C) VSI and airspeed to detect approaching VSI or VMO.

391.	H818	IRA
If an airplane is in an unusual flight attitude and the attitude indicator has exceeded its limits, which instruments should be relied on to determine pitch attitude before starting recovery?
A) Turn indicator and VSI.
B) Airspeed and altimeter.
C) VSI and airspeed to detect approaching VSI or VMO.

392.	H823	IRA
What instruments are primary for pitch, bank, and power, respectively, when transitioning into a constant airspeed climb from straight and level flight?
A) Attitude indicator, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer.
B) Attitude indicator for both pitch and bank; airspeed indicator for power.
C) Vertical speed, attitude indicator, and manifold pressure or tachometer.

393.	H827	IRA
During a stabilized autorotation, approximately what flight attitude should be established on the attitude indicator?
A) Two bar widths below the artificial horizon.
B) A pitch attitude that will give an established rate of descent of not more than 500 feet per minute.
C) Level flight attitude.

394.	H813	IRA
What is the first fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying?
A) Aircraft control.
B) Instrument cross-check.
C) Instrument interpretation.

395.	H827	IRA
What is the primary pitch instrument during a stabilized autorotation?
A) Altimeter.
B) Airspeed indicator.
C) VSI.

396.	H816	IRA
What is the primary pitch instrument when establishing a constant altitude standard-rate turn?
A) Altimeter.
B) VSI.
C) Airspeed indicator.

397.	H816	IRA
During standard-rate turns, which instrument is considered 'primary' for bank?
A) Attitude indicator.
B) Heading indicator.
C) Turn and slip indicator or turn coordinator.

398.	H816	IRA
What is the initial primary bank instrument when establishing a level standard-rate turn?
A) Turn coordinator.
B) Heading indicator.
C) Attitude indicator.

399.	H814	IRA
As power is reduced to change airspeed from high to low cruise in level flight, which instruments are primary for pitch, bank, and power, respectively?
A) Attitude indicator, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer.
B) Altimeter, attitude indicator, and airspeed indicator.
C) Altimeter, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer.

400.	H815	IRA
What instrument(s) is(are) supporting bank instrument when entering a constant airspeed climb from straight-and-level flight?
A) Heading indicator.
B) Attitude indicator and turn coordinator.
C) Turn coordinator and heading indicator.

401.	H813	IRA
What is the third fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying?
A) Instrument cross-check.
B) Power control.
C) Aircraft control.

402.	L57	IRA
What indication should a pilot observe if an airspeed indicator ram air input and drain hole are blocked?
A) The airspeed indicator will react as an altimeter.
B) The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with an increase in altitude.
C) No airspeed indicator change will occur during climbs or descents.

403.	J17	IRA
(Refer to figure 113.) You receive this ATC clearance:
'...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD WEST ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...'
What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
A) Parallel only.
B) Direct only.
C) Teardrop only.

404.	H816	IRA
What is the primary bank instrument while transitioning from straight-and-level flight to a standard-rate turn to the left?
A) Attitude indicator.
B) Heading indicator.
C) Turn coordinator (miniature aircraft).

405.	H822	IRA
Which initial pitch attitude change on the attitude indicator should be made to correct altitude while at normal cruise in a helicopter?
A) Two bar width.
B) One and one half bar width.
C) One bar width.

406.	H810	IRA
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator directly display?
A) Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B) Angle of bank and rate of turn.
C) Angle of bank.

407.	H813	IRA
What is the correct sequence in which to use the three skills used in instrument flying?
A) Aircraft control, cross-check, and instrument interpretation.
B) Instrument interpretation, cross-check, and aircraft control.
C) Cross-check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control.

408.	H814	IRA
Which instrument provides the most pertinent information (primary) for pitch control in straight-and-level flight?
A) Attitude indicator.
B) Airspeed indicator.
C) Altimeter.

409.	H813	IRA
Which instruments, in addition to the attitude indicator, are pitch instruments?
A) Altimeter and airspeed only.
B) Altimeter and VSI only.
C) Altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.

410.	H810	IRA
During normal operation of a vacuum driven attitude indicator, what attitude indication should you see when rolling out from a 180° skidding turn to straight-and-level coordinated flight?
A) A straight-and-level coordinated flight indication.
B) A nose high indication relative to level flight.
C) The miniature aircraft shows a turn in the direction opposite the skid.

411.	J17	IRA
Unless otherwise specified on the chart, the minimum en route altitude along a jet route is
A) 18,000 feet MSL.
B) 24,000 feet MSL.
C) 10,000 feet MSL.

412.	H818	IRA
While recovering from an unusual flight attitude without the aid of the attitude indicator, approximate level pitch attitude is reached when the
A) airspeed and altimeter stop their movement and the VSI reverses its trend.
B) airspeed arrives at cruising speed, the altimeter reverses its trend, and the vertical speed stops its movement.
C) altimeter and vertical speed reverse their trend and the airspeed stops its movement.

413.	H816	IRA
Which instruments are considered primary and supporting for bank, respectively, when establishing a level standard-rate turn?
A) Turn coordinator and attitude indicator.
B) Attitude indicator and turn coordinator.
C) Turn coordinator and heading indicator.

414.	H815	IRA
What is the primary pitch instrument during a stabilized climbing left turn at cruise climb airspeed?
A) Attitude indicator.
B) VSI.
C) Airspeed indicator.

415.	H812	IRA
What pretakeoff check should be made of the attitude indicator in preparation for an IFR flight?
A) The horizon bar does not vibrate during warmup.
B) The miniature airplane should erect and become stable within 5 minutes.
C) The horizon bar should erect and become stable within 5 minutes.

416.	H815	IRA
As power is increased to enter a 500 feet per minute rate of climb in straight flight, which instruments are primary for pitch, bank, and power respectively?
A) Attitude indicator, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer.
B) VSI, attitude indicator, and airspeed indicator.
C) Airspeed indicator, attitude indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer.

417.	H814	IRA
Which instrument provides the most pertinent information (primary) for bank control in straight-and-level flight?
A) Turn and slip indicator.
B) Attitude indicator.
C) Heading indicator.

418.	J35	IRA
(Refer to figure 87.) Which VHF frequencies, other than 121.5, can be used to receive De Ridder FSS in the Lake Charles area?
A) 122.1, 126.4.
B) 123.6, 122.65.
C) 122.2, 122.3.

419.	H828	IRA
During the initial acceleration on an instrument takeoff in a helicopter, what flight attitude should be established on the attitude indicator?
A) Level flight attitude.
B) Two bar widths low.
C) One bar width high.

420.	H810	IRA
What indications are displayed by the miniature aircraft of a turn coordinator?
A) Rate of roll and rate of turn.
B) Direct indication of bank angle and pitch attitude.
C) Indirect indication of bank angle and pitch attitude.

421.	H824	IRA
To level off at an airspeed higher than the descent speed, the addition of power should be made, assuming a 500 FPM rate of descent, at approximately
A) 50 to 100 feet above the desired altitude.
B) 100 to 150 feet above the desired altitude.
C) 150 to 200 feet above the desired altitude.

422.	J40	IRA
(Refer to figures 85 and 86.) Which combination of indications confirm that you are approaching WAGGE intersection slightly to the right of the LOC centerline on departure?
A) 1 and 3.
B) 1 and 4.
C) 2 and 3.

423.	H814	IRA
(Refer to figure 144.) What changes in control displacement should be made so that '2' would result in a coordinated standard-rate turn?
A) Increase left rudder and increase rate of turn.
B) Increase left rudder and decrease rate of turn.
C) Decrease left rudder and decrease angle of bank.

424.	H758	IRA
If while in level flight, it becomes necessary to use an alternate source of static pressure vented inside the airplane, which of the following variations in instrument indications should the pilot expect?
A) The altimeter will read lower than normal, airspeed lower than normal, and the VSI will momentarily show a descent.
B) The altimeter will read higher than normal, airspeed greater than normal, and the VSI will momentarily show a climb.
C) The altimeter will read lower than normal, airspeed greater than normal, and the VSI will momentarily show a climb and then a descent.

425.	H312	IRA
If while in level flight, it becomes necessary to use an alternate source of static pressure vented inside the airplane, which of the following variations in instrument indications should the pilot expect?
A) The altimeter will read lower than normal, airspeed lower than normal, and the VSI will momentarily show a descent.
B) The altimeter will read higher than normal, airspeed greater than normal, and the VSI will momentarily show a climb.
C) The altimeter will read lower than normal, airspeed greater than normal, and the VSI will momentarily show a climb and then a descent.

426.	H808	IRA
(Refer to figure 83.) Which altimeter depicts 12,000 feet?
A) 2.
B) 3.
C) 4.

427.	H813	IRA
What are the three fundamental skills involved in attitude instrument flying?
A) Instrument interpretation, trim application, and aircraft control.
B) Cross-check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control.
C) Cross-check, emphasis, and aircraft control.

428.	J16	IRA
An abbreviated departure clearance '...CLEARED AS FILED...' will always contain the name
A) and number of the STAR to be flown when filed in the flight plan.
B) of the destination airport filed in the flight plan.
C) of the first compulsory reporting point if not in a radar environment.

429.	H815	IRA
While cruising at 160 knots, you wish to establish a climb at 130 knots. When entering the climb (full panel), it is proper to make the initial pitch change by increasing back elevator pressure until the
A) attitude indicator, airspeed, and vertical speed indicate a climb.
B) vertical speed indication reaches the predetermined rate of climb.
C) attitude indicator shows the approximate pitch attitude appropriate for the 130 knot climb.

430.	H814	IRA
(Refer to figure 144.) Which illustration indicates a coordinated turn?
A) 3.
B) 1.
C) 2.

431.	H815	IRA
To level off from a descent maintaining the descending airspeed, the pilot should lead the desired altitude by approximately
A) 20 feet.
B) 50 feet.
C) 60 feet.

432.	H758	IRA
(Refer to figure 144.) Which illustration indicates a coordinated turn?
A) 3.
B) 1.
C) 2.

433.	H815	IRA
To level off at an airspeed higher than the descent speed, the addition of power should be made, assuming a 500 FPM rate of descent, at approximately
A) 50 to 100 feet above the desired altitude.
B) 100 to 150 feet above the desired altitude.
C) 150 to 200 feet above the desired altitude.

434.	H815	IRA
To enter a constant airspeed descent from level cruising flight, and maintain cruising airspeed, the pilot should
A) first adjust the pitch attitude to a descent using the attitude indicator as a reference, then adjust the power to maintain the cruising airspeed.
B) first reduce power, then adjust the pitch using the attitude indicator as a reference to establish a specific rate on the VSI.
C) simultaneously reduce power and adjust the pitch using the attitude indicator as a reference to maintain the cruising airspeed.

435.	H808	IRA
Pressure altitude is the altitude read on your altimeter when the instrument is adjusted to indicate height above
A) sea level.
B) the standard datum plane.
C) ground level.

436.	H808	IRA
Altimeter setting is the value to which the scale of the pressure altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates
A) pressure altitude at sea level.
B) true altitude at field elevation.
C) pressure altitude at field elevation.

437.	H816	IRA
The displacement of a turn coordinator during a coordinated turn will
A) indicate the angle of bank.
B) remain constant for a given bank regardless of airspeed.
C) increase as angle of bank increases.

438.	H822	IRA
For maintaining level flight at constant thrust, which instrument would be the least appropriate for determining the need for a pitch change?
A) Altimeter.
B) VSI.
C) Attitude indicator.

439.	H814	IRA
For maintaining level flight at constant thrust, which instrument would be the least appropriate for determining the need for a pitch change?
A) Altimeter.
B) VSI.
C) Attitude indicator.

440.	H810	IRA
When an aircraft is accelerated, some attitude indicators will precess and incorrectly indicate a
A) climb.
B) descent.
C) right turn.

441.	H818	IRA
During recoveries from unusual attitudes, level flight is attained the instant
A) the horizon bar on the attitude indicator is exactly overlapped with the miniature airplane.
B) a zero rate of climb is indicated on the VSI.
C) the altimeter and airspeed needles stop prior to reversing their direction of movement.

442.	H826	IRA
(Refer to figure 148.) What is the flight attitude? One system which transmits information to the instruments has malfunctioned.
A) Climbing turn to left.
B) Climbing turn to right.
C) Level turn to left.

443.	J17	IRA
Which report should be made to ATC without a specific request when not in radar contact?
A) Entering instrument meteorological conditions.
B) When leaving final approach fix in bound on final approach.
C) Correcting an E.T.A. any time a previous E.T.A. is in error in excess of 2 minutes.

444.	J14	IRA
What minimums must be considered in selecting an altitude when operating with a VFR on Top clearance?
A) At least 500 feet above the lowest MEA, or appropriate MOCA, and at least 1,000 feet above the existing meteorological condition.
B) At least 1,000 feet above the lowest MEA, appropriate MOCA, or existing meteorological condition.
C) Minimum IFR altitude, minimum distance from clouds, and visibility appropriate to altitude selected.

445.	J14	IRA
A 'CRUISE FOUR THOUSAND FEET' clearance would mean that the pilot is authorized to
A) vacate 4,000 feet without notifying ATC.
B) climb to, but not descend from 4,000 feet, without further ATC clearance.
C) use any altitude from minimum IFR to 4,000 feet, but must report leaving each altitude.

446.	J16	IRA
What does the symbol T within a black triangle in the minimums section of the IAP for a particular airport indicate?
A) Takeoff minimums are 1 mile for aircraft having two engines or less and 1/2 mile for those with more than two engines.
B) Instrument takeoffs are not authorized.
C) Takeoff minimums are not standard and/or departure procedures are published.

447.	J26	IRA
En route at FL 290, your altimeter is set correctly, but you fail to reset it to the local altimeter setting of 30.26 inches Hg during descent. If the field elevation is 134 feet and your altimeter is functioning properly, what will it indicate after landing?
A) 100 feet MSL.
B) 474 feet MSL.
C) 206 feet below MSL.

448.	J26	IRA
How does a pilot normally obtain the current altimeter setting during an IFR flight in Class E airspace below 18,000 feet?
A) The pilot should contact ARTCC at least every 100 NM and request the altimeter setting.
B) FSS's along the route broadcast the weather information at 15 minutes past the hour.
C) ATC periodically advises the pilot of the proper altimeter setting.

449.	J14	IRA
What reports are required of a flight operating on an IFR clearance specifying VFR on Top in a nonradar environment?
A) The same reports that are required for any IFR flight.
B) All normal IFR reports except vacating altitudes.
C) Only the reporting of any unforecast weather.

450.	H826	IRA
(Refer to figure 151.) What is the flight attitude? One instrument has malfunctioned.
A) Climbing turn to the right.
B) Level turn to the right.
C) Level turn to the left.

451.	H826	IRA
(Refer to figure 150.) What is the flight attitude? One instrument has malfunctioned.
A) Climbing turn to the right.
B) Climbing turn to the left.
C) Descending turn to the right.

452.	H818	IRA
(Refer to figure 150.) What is the flight attitude? One instrument has malfunctioned.
A) Climbing turn to the right.
B) Climbing turn to the left.
C) Descending turn to the right.

453.	H758	IRA
(Refer to figure 144.) What changes in control displacement should be made so that '2' would result in a coordinated standard-rate turn?
A) Increase left pedal and increase rate of turn.
B) Increase left pedal and decrease rate of turn.
C) Decrease left pedal and decrease angle of bank.

454.	H818	IRA
(Refer to figure 149.) What is the flight attitude? One system which transmits information to the instruments has malfunctioned.
A) Level turn to the right.
B) Level turn to the left.
C) Straight-and-level flight.

455.	H824	IRA
To level off from a descent to a specific altitude, the pilot should lead the level off by approximately
A) 10 percent of the vertical speed.
B) 30 percent of the vertical speed.
C) 50 percent of the vertical speed.

456.	H818	IRA
(Refer to figure 148.) What is the flight attitude? One system which transmits information to the instruments has malfunctioned.
A) Climbing turn to left.
B) Climbing turn to right.
C) Level turn to left.

457.	H818	IRA
(Refer to figure 147.) Which is the correct sequence for recovery from the unusual attitude indicated?
A) Level wings, add power, lower nose, descend to original attitude, and heading.
B) Add power, lower nose, level wings, return to original attitude and heading.
C) Stop turn by raising right wing and add power at the same time, lower the nose, and return to original attitude and heading.

458.	H818	IRA
(Refer to figure 146.) Identify the system that has failed and determine a corrective action to return the airplane to straight-and-level flight.
A) Static/pitot system is blocked; lower the nose and level the wings to level flight attitude by use of attitude indicator.