Atlas Aviation - FAA airmen written test question bank

TRAINING
		NAFI Instructor Search

		AOPA Instructor Search

		Tim's VOR Simulator

		Bendix King GPS Sims

		Practice Exams

		Checkride Notes

		Ready For The Checkride

		Flight Training Course Outlines

		Jedi Nein's Private Lesson Plan

		Jedi Nein's Commercial Lesson Plan

		Jedi Nein's Instrument Lesson Plan

		LaserGrade

		Cats

		Prometric

		Testing Centers

		Aviation Ground School

		USA Today Aviation Ground School

		Aviation Weather Ground School

		Private Pilot Ground School

		Commercial Ground School

		Aviation Law Ground School

		Airport Management Ground School

		Financial Aid

		Scholarships

		Airport Markings Flash Cards

		Boeing 737 Technical Data

06/09/2003
Bank: (Private Pilot)
Airman Knowledge Test Question Bank

The FAA computer-assisted testing system is supported by a series of supplement publications. These publications, available through several aviation publishers, include the graphics, legends, and maps that are needed to successfully respond to certain test items. Please download the file Supplements.pdf at the Internet address of http://afs600.faa.gov/ for a complete list of the associated supplement books.

1.	J27	PVT
When departing behind a heavy aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by maneuvering the aircraft
A) below and downwind from the heavy aircraft.
B) above and upwind from the heavy aircraft.
C) below and upwind from the heavy aircraft.

2.	H507	PVT
Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should
A) check altitude, airspeed, and heading indications.
B) visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance.
C) announce their intentions on the nearest CTAF.

3.	J27	PVT
When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying
A) above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft's touchdown point.
B) below the large aircraft's final approach path and landing before the large aircraft's touchdown point.
C) above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing before the large aircraft's touchdown point.

4.	J27	PVT
Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to
A) sink below the aircraft generating turbulence.
B) rise into the traffic pattern.
C) rise into the takeoff or landing path of a crossing runway.

5.	J27	PVT
Wingtip vortices are created only when an aircraft is
A) operating at high airspeeds.
B) heavily loaded.
C) developing lift.

6.	J27	PVT
The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is
A) light, dirty, and fast.
B) heavy, dirty, and fast.
C) heavy, clean, and slow.

7.	J27	PVT
The wind condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding wake turbulence on landing is a
A) light, quartering headwind.
B) light, quartering tailwind.
C) strong headwind.

8.	J27	PVT
When taking off or landing at an airport where heavy aircraft are operating, one should be particularly alert to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to
A) rise from a crossing runway into the takeoff or landing path.
B) rise into the traffic pattern area surrounding the airport.
C) sink into the flightpath of aircraft operating below the aircraft generating the turbulence.

9.	M52	PVT
FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Air Traffic Control and General Operations are issued under which subject number?
A) 60.
B) 70.
C) 90.

10.	H564	PVT
What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight?
A) Look only at far away, dim lights.
B) Scan slowly to permit offcenter viewing.
C) Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds.

11.	M52	PVT
FAA advisory circulars (some free, others at cost) are available to all pilots and are obtained by
A) distribution from the nearest FAA district office.
B) ordering those desired from the Government Printing Office.
C) subscribing to the Federal Register.

12.	B08	PVT
When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is
A) 200 knots.
B) 230 knots.
C) 250 knots.

13.	B09	PVT
Which cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight on a magnetic course of 135°?
A) Even thousandths.
B) Even thousandths plus 500 feet.
C) Odd thousandths plus 500 feet.

14.	B08	PVT
If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter?
A) The elevation of the nearest airport corrected to mean sea level.
B) The elevation of the departure area.
C) Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.

15.	B08	PVT
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?
A) An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.
B) An altitude of 500 feet above the surface and no closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
C) An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet.

16.	G13	PVT
The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an accident report within how many days?
A) 5.
B) 7.
C) 10.

17.	G12	PVT
May aircraft wreckage be moved prior to the time the NTSB takes custody?
A) Yes, but only if moved by a federal, state, or local law enforcement officer.
B) Yes, but only to protect the wreckage from further damage.
C) No, it may not be moved under any circumstances.

18.	G11	PVT
Which incident requires an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?
A) A forced landing due to engine failure.
B) Landing gear damage, due to a hard landing.
C) Flight control system malfunction or failure.

19.	B08	PVT
When would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which caused the pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance?
A) When requested by ATC.
B) Immediately.
C) Within 7 days.

20.	A15	PVT
Preventive maintenance has been performed on an aircraft. What paperwork is required?
A) A full, detailed description of the work done must be entered in the airframe logbook.
B) The date the work was completed, and the name of the person who did the work must be entered in the airframe and engine logbook.
C) The signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records.

21.	G11	PVT
If an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage to the aircraft, the nearest NTSB field office should be notified
A) immediately.
B) within 48 hours.
C) within 7 days.

22.	B08	PVT
When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance, unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance. The one exception to this regulation is
A) when the clearance states 'at pilot's discretion.'
B) an emergency.
C) if the clearance contains a restriction.

23.	B08	PVT
When flying in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is
A) 180 knots.
B) 200 knots.
C) 250 knots.

24.	A02	PVT
Which would provide the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance during climb after takeoff?
A) V_Y.
B) V_A.
C) V_X.

25.	A02	PVT
After takeoff, which airspeed would the pilot use to gain the most altitude in a given period of time?
A) V_Y.
B) V_X.
C) V_A.

26.	A13	PVT
What should an owner or operator know about Airworthiness Directives (AD's)?
A) They are mandatory.
B) They are voluntary.
C) For Informational purposes only.

27.	B11	PVT
Except in Alaska, during what time period should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft?
A) End of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight.
B) 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.
C) Sunset to sunrise.

28.	B11	PVT
When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, supplemental oxygen shall be used during
A) the entire flight time at those altitudes.
B) that flight time in excess of 10 minutes at those altitudes.
C) that flight time in excess of 30 minutes at those altitudes.

29.	A13	PVT
May a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an Airworthiness Directive (AD)?
A) Yes, AD's are only voluntary.
B) Yes, if allowed by the AD.
C) Yes, under VFR conditions only.

30.	B11	PVT
An operable 4096-code transponder with an encoding altimeter is required in which airspace?
A) Class A, Class B (and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport), and Class C.
B) Class D and Class E (below 10,000 feet MSL).
C) Class D and Class G (below 10,000 feet MSL).

31.	B13	PVT
Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 1993. The next inspection will be due no later than
A) September 30, 1994.
B) September 1, 1995.
C) September 30, 1995.

32.	B08	PVT
Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?
A) Glider.
B) Airship.
C) Aircraft refueling other aircraft.

33.	B08	PVT
What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on?
A) The faster aircraft shall give way.
B) The aircraft on the left shall give way.
C) Each aircraft shall give way to the right.

34.	B13	PVT
Which records or documents shall the owner or operator of an aircraft keep to show compliance with an applicable Airworthiness Directive?
A) Aircraft maintenance records.
B) Airworthiness Certificate and Pilot's Operating Handbook.
C) Airworthiness and Registration Certificates.

35.	A01	PVT
With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft?
A) Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon.
B) Normal, utility, acrobatic, limited.
C) Transport, restricted, provisional.

36.	B08	PVT
Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL?
A) 200 knots.
B) 250 knots.
C) 288 knots.

37.	B08	PVT
A seaplane and a motorboat are on crossing courses. If the motorboat is to the left of the seaplane, which has the right-of-way?
A) The motorboat.
B) The seaplane.
C) Both should alter course to the right.

38.	A01	PVT
With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a category of aircraft?
A) Gyroplane, helicopter, airship, free balloon.
B) Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.
C) Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea.

39.	B11	PVT
When are non-rechargeable batteries of an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) required to be replaced?
A) Every 24 months.
B) When 50 percent of their useful life expires.
C) At the time of each 100-hour or annual inspection.

40.	A01	PVT
With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft?
A) Normal, utility, acrobatic.
B) Airplane, rotorcraft, glider.
C) Landplane, seaplane.

41.	B08	PVT
What action, if any, is appropriate if the pilot deviates from an ATC instruction during an emergency and is given priority?
A) Take no special action since you are pilot in command.
B) File a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility, if requested.
C) File a report to the FAA Administrator, as soon as possible.

42.	A01	PVT
The definition of nighttime is
A) sunset to sunrise.
B) 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.
C) the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.

43.	B11	PVT
In addition to a valid Airworthiness Certificate, what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight?
A) Aircraft engine and airframe logbooks, and owner's manual.
B) Radio operator's permit, and repair and alteration forms.
C) Operating limitations and Registration Certificate.

44.	A02	PVT
Which V-speed represents maneuvering speed?
A) V_A.
B) V_LO.
C) V_NE.

45.	B11	PVT
When must batteries in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced or recharged, if rechargeable?
A) After any inadvertent activation of the ELT.
B) When the ELT has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour.
C) When the ELT can no longer be heard over the airplane's communication radio receiver.

46.	A01	PVT
With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a class of aircraft?
A) Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.
B) Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea.
C) Lighter-than-air, airship, hot air balloon, gas balloon.

47.	B09	PVT
What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL?
A) 1 mile.
B) 3 miles.
C) 4 miles.

48.	B08	PVT
Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only
A) when the weather minimums are below basic VFR.
B) when the associated control tower is in operation.
C) when the associated Flight Service Station is in operation.

49.	B08	PVT
A blue segmented circle on a Sectional Chart depicts which class airspace?
A) Class B.
B) Class C.
C) Class D.

50.	B09	PVT
Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for a recreational pilot flying VFR above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is
A) 1 mile.
B) 3 miles.
C) 5 miles.

51.	B08	PVT
Each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall
A) maintain a 3° glide to the runway.
B) maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.
C) stay high until the runway can be reached in a power-off landing.

52.	B09	PVT
What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?
A) 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.
B) 1 mile visibility, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal clearance from clouds.
C) 3 miles visibility and clear of clouds.

53.	B09	PVT
The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL is
A) remain clear of clouds.
B) 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally.
C) 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally.

54.	B09	PVT
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is
A) 1 mile.
B) 3 miles.
C) 5 miles.

55.	B09	PVT
During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is
A) 1,000 feet.
B) 1,500 feet.
C) 2,000 feet.

56.	B08	PVT
What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?
A) Two-way radio communications equipment and a 4096-code transponder.
B) Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and DME.
C) Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.

57.	B08	PVT
In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited?
A) Class A.
B) Class B.
C) Class C.

58.	B08	PVT
An operable 4096-code transponder and Mode C encoding altimeter are required in
A) Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport.
B) Class D airspace.
C) Class E airspace below 10,000 feet MSL.

59.	B13	PVT
If an alteration or repair substantially affects an aircraft's operation in flight, that aircraft must be test flown by an appropriately-rated pilot and approved for return to service prior to being operated
A) by any private pilot.
B) with passengers aboard.
C) for compensation or hire.

60.	B09	PVT
What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane?
A) Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions.
B) Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
C) Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

61.	B08	PVT
Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for landings or takeoffs
A) at all tower controlled airports regardless of weather conditions.
B) at all tower controlled airports only when weather conditions are less than VFR.
C) at all tower controlled airports within Class D airspace only when weather conditions are less than VFR.

62.	B08	PVT
What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?
A) Recreational Pilot Certificate.
B) Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements.
C) Private Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.

63.	B09	PVT
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is
A) 500 feet.
B) 1,000 feet.
C) 1,500 feet.

64.	B09	PVT
No person may begin a flight in a rotorcraft under VFR unless there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed, to fly thereafter for at least
A) 20 minutes.
B) 30 minutes.
C) 1 hour.

65.	B09	PVT
What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for a recreational pilot in Class G airspace at 1,200 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?
A) 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.
B) 3 miles visibility and clear of clouds.
C) 3 miles visibility, 500 feet below the clouds.

66.	B07	PVT
Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?
A) A certificated aircraft mechanic.
B) The pilot in command.
C) The owner or operator.

67.	B08	PVT
Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace?
A) Class C.
B) Class E.
C) Class G.

68.	B08	PVT
Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a noncontrolled airport?
A) Depart in any direction consistent with safety, after crossing the airport boundary.
B) Make all turns to the left.
C) Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport.

69.	B08	PVT
Which is appropriate for a helicopter approaching an airport for landing?
A) Remain below the airplane traffic pattern altitude.
B) Avoid the flow of fixed-wing traffic.
C) Fly right-hand traffic.

70.	B09	PVT
What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane?
A) Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions.
B) Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
C) Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

71.	B09	PVT
Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for VFR flight above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is
A) 1 mile.
B) 3 miles.
C) 5 miles.

72.	B09	PVT
Under what conditions, if any, may a private pilot operate a helicopter under special VFR at night within Class D airspace?
A) The helicopter must be fully instrument equipped and the pilot must be instrument rated.
B) The flight visibility must be at least 1 mile.
C) There are no conditions; regulations permit this.

73.	B09	PVT
What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at night?
A) The airplane must be under radar surveillance at all times while in Class D airspace.
B) The airplane must be equipped for IFR with an altitude reporting transponder.
C) The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped.

74.	B09	PVT
The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is
A) 1 mile.
B) 3 miles.
C) 5 miles.

75.	B08	PVT
A steady green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot
A) is cleared to land.
B) should give way to other aircraft and continue circling.
C) should return for landing.

76.	B09	PVT
A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace when the visibility is
A) less than 1 mile and the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet.
B) at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.
C) at least 3 miles and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.

77.	B09	PVT
No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the
A) flight visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile.
B) ground visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile.
C) ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles.

78.	A29	PVT
When, if ever, may a recreational pilot act as pilot in command in an aircraft towing a banner?
A) If the pilot has logged 100 hours of flight time in powered aircraft.
B) If the pilot has an endorsement in his/her pilot logbook from an authorized flight instructor.
C) It is not allowed.

79.	B12	PVT
Which is normally prohibited when operating a restricted category civil aircraft?
A) Flight under instrument flight rules.
B) Flight over a densely populated area.
C) Flight within Class D airspace.

80.	A29	PVT
With respect to daylight hours, what is the earliest time a recreational pilot may take off?
A) One hour before sunrise.
B) At sunrise.
C) At the beginning of morning civil twilight.

81.	A29	PVT
When may a recreational pilot operate to or from an airport that lies within Class C airspace?
A) Anytime the control tower is in operation.
B) When the ceiling is at least 1,000 feet and the surface visibility is at least 3 miles.
C) For the purpose of obtaining an additional certificate or rating while under the supervision of an authorized flight instructor.

82.	A29	PVT
Under what conditions may a recreational pilot operate at an airport that lies within Class D airspace and that has a part-time control tower in operation?
A) Between sunrise and sunset when the tower is in operation, the ceiling is at least 2,500 feet, and the visibility is at least 3 miles.
B) Any time when the tower is in operation, the ceiling is at least 3,000 feet, and the visibility is more than 1 mile.
C) Between sunrise and sunset when the tower is closed, the ceiling is at least 1,000 feet, and the visibility is at least 3 miles.

83.	A29	PVT
When may a recreational pilot fly above 10,000 feet MSL?
A) When 2,000 feet AGL or below.
B) When 2,500 feet AGL or below.
C) When outside of controlled airspace.

84.	A29	PVT
During daytime, what is the minimum flight or surface visibility required for recreational pilots in Class G airspace below 10,000 feet MSL?
A) 1 mile.
B) 3 miles.
C) 5 miles.

85.	A29	PVT
What exception, if any, permits a recreational pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying a passenger for hire?
A) If the passenger pays no more than the operating expenses.
B) If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight.
C) There is no exception.

86.	A29	PVT
Under what conditions, if any, may a recreational pilot demonstrate an aircraft in flight to a prospective buyer?
A) The buyer pays all the operating expenses.
B) The flight is not outside the United States.
C) None.

87.	A29	PVT
A recreational pilot may act as pilot in command of an aircraft with a maximum engine horsepower of
A) 160.
B) 180.
C) 200.

88.	A29	PVT
When must a recreational pilot have a pilot-in-command flight check?
A) Every 400 hours.
B) Every 180 days.
C) If the pilot has less than 400 total flight hours and has not flown as pilot in command in an aircraft within the preceding 180 days.

89.	A29	PVT
A recreational pilot may fly as sole occupant of an aircraft at night while under the supervision of a flight instructor provided the flight or surface visibility is at least
A) 3 miles.
B) 4 miles.
C) 5 miles.

90.	A20	PVT
Prior to becoming certified as a private pilot with a glider rating, the pilot must have in his or her possession what type of medical?
A) A third-class medical certificate.
B) A statement from a designated medical examiner.
C) A medical certificate is not required.

91.	B12	PVT
Unless otherwise specifically authorized, no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate
A) beneath the floor of Class B airspace.
B) over a densely populated area or in a congested airway.
C) from the primary airport within Class D airspace.

92.	A20	PVT
Prior to becoming certified as a private pilot with a balloon rating, the pilot must have in his or her possession what class of medical?
A) A third-class medical certificate.
B) A statement from a designated medical examiner.
C) A medical certificate is not required.

93.	A23	PVT
What exception, if any, permits a private pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers who pay for the flight?
A) If the passengers pay all the operating expenses.
B) If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight.
C) There is no exception.

94.	A29	PVT
During daytime, what is the minimum flight visibility required for recreational pilots in controlled airspace below 10,000 feet MSL?
A) 1 mile.
B) 3 miles.
C) 5 miles.

95.	A29	PVT
A recreational pilot acting as pilot in command must have in his or her personal possession while aboard the aircraft
A) a current logbook endorsement to show that a flight review has been satisfactorily accomplished.
B) a current logbook endorsement that permits flight within 50 nautical miles from the departure airport.
C) the pilot logbook to show recent experience requirements to serve as pilot in command have been met.

96.	A20	PVT
If recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and official sunset is 1830, the latest time passengers may be carried is
A) 1829.
B) 1859.
C) 1929.

97.	A20	PVT
To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in an aircraft of the same category, class, and if a type rating is required, of the same type, within the preceding
A) 90 days.
B) 12 calendar months.
C) 24 calendar months.

98.	A20	PVT
If a certificated pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of only
A) 30 days after the date of the move.
B) 60 days after the date of the move.
C) 90 days after the date of the move.

99.	A29	PVT
May a recreational pilot act as pilot in command of an aircraft in furtherance of a business?
A) Yes, if the flight is only incidental to that business.
B) Yes, providing the aircraft does not carry a person or property for compensation or hire.
C) No, it is not allowed.

100.	A21	PVT
To act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider, a pilot is required to have made within the preceding 12 months
A) at least three flights as observer in a glider being towed by an aircraft.
B) at least three flights in a powered glider.
C) at least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot.

101.	B13	PVT
The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that of the
A) pilot in command.
B) owner or operator.
C) mechanic who performs the work.

102.	A20	PVT
If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8, this year, when is the next flight review required?
A) August 8, 2 years later.
B) August 31, next year.
C) August 31, 2 years later.

103.	A20	PVT
Each recreational or private pilot is required to have
A) a biennial flight review.
B) an annual flight review.
C) a semiannual flight review.

104.	A20	PVT
If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8, this year, when is the next flight review required?
A) August 8, next year.
B) August 31, 1 year later.
C) August 31, 2 years later.

105.	A29	PVT
How many passengers is a recreational pilot allowed to carry on board?
A) One.
B) Two.
C) Three.

106.	A29	PVT
According to regulations pertaining to privileges and limitations, a recreational pilot may
A) be paid for the operating expenses of a flight.
B) not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with a passenger.
C) not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of a flight.

107.	B12	PVT
No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight when
A) flight visibility is less than 5 miles.
B) over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement.
C) less than 2,500 feet AGL.

108.	A29	PVT
When may a recreational pilot act as pilot in command on a cross-country flight that exceeds 50 nautical miles from the departure airport?
A) After attaining 100 hours of pilot-in-command time and a logbook endorsement.
B) After receiving ground and flight instructions on cross-country training and a logbook endorsement.
C) 12 calendar months after receiving his or her recreational pilot certificate and a logbook endorsement.

109.	A21	PVT
A certificated private pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider unless there is entered in the pilot's logbook a minimum of
A) 100 hours of pilot flight time in any aircraft, that the pilot is using to tow a glider.
B) 100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider.
C) 200 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider.

110.	B07	PVT
Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?
A) Check the aircraft logbooks for appropriate entries.
B) Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.
C) Review wake turbulence avoidance procedures.

111.	B13	PVT
Who is responsible for ensuring Airworthiness Directives (AD's) are complied with?
A) Owner or operator.
B) Mechanic with inspection authorization (IA).
C) Repair station.

112.	B13	PVT
The airworthiness of an aircraft can be determined by a preflight inspection and a
A) review of the maintenance records.
B) statement from the owner or operator that the aircraft is airworthy.
C) log book endorsement from a flight instructor.

113.	B07	PVT
No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with
A) .008 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
B) .004 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
C) .04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.

114.	B07	PVT
Under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft?
A) In an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care.
B) Only if the person does not have access to the cockpit or pilot's compartment.
C) Under no condition.

115.	A60	PVT
Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from
A) 700 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL.
B) 1,200 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL.
C) the surface up to and including 18,000 feet MSL.

116.	B13	PVT
An aircraft's annual inspection was performed on July 12, this year. The next annual inspection will be due no later than
A) July 1, next year.
B) July 13, next year.
C) July 31, next year.

117.	B07	PVT
A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding
A) 8 hours.
B) 12 hours.
C) 24 hours.

118.	A60	PVT
Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the ceiling and visibility to be at least
A) 1,000 feet and 1 mile.
B) 1,000 feet and 3 miles.
C) 2,500 feet and 3 miles.

119.	B13	PVT
Completion of an annual inspection and the return of the aircraft to service should always be indicated by
A) the relicensing date on the Registration Certificate.
B) an appropriate notation in the aircraft maintenance records.
C) an inspection sticker placed on the instrument panel that lists the annual inspection completion date.

120.	B07	PVT
Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found?
A) On the Airworthiness Certificate.
B) In the current, FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.
C) In the aircraft airframe and engine logbooks.

121.	B07	PVT
The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the
A) Federal Aviation Administration.
B) pilot in command.
C) aircraft manufacturer.

122.	B07	PVT
The person directly responsible for the pre-launch briefing of passengers for a flight is the
A) safety officer.
B) pilot in command.
C) ground crewmember.

123.	B07	PVT
If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, the pilot in command may
A) deviate from the FAR's to the extent required to meet the emergency, but must submit a written report to the Administrator within 24 hours.
B) deviate from the FAR's to the extent required to meet that emergency.
C) not deviate from the FAR's unless prior to the deviation approval is granted by the Administrator.

124.	B07	PVT
When must a pilot who deviates from a regulation during an emergency send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator?
A) Within 7 days.
B) Within 10 days.
C) Upon request.

125.	B13	PVT
The responsibility for ensuring that maintenance personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service lies with the
A) owner or operator.
B) pilot in command.
C) mechanic who performed the work.

126.	A60	PVT
The width of a Federal Airway from either side of the centerline is
A) 4 nautical miles.
B) 6 nautical miles.
C) 8 nautical miles.

127.	B07	PVT
Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft?
A) Only in an emergency.
B) If precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface.
C) If prior permission is received from the Federal Aviation Administration.

128.	B12	PVT
What is the lowest altitude permitted for acrobatic flight?
A) 1,000 feet AGL.
B) 1,500 feet AGL.
C) 2,000 feet AGL.

129.	B07	PVT
In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to
A) review traffic control light signal procedures.
B) check the accuracy of the navigation equipment and the emergency locator transmitter (ELT).
C) determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data.

130.	B07	PVT
Flight crewmembers are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during
A) takeoffs and landings.
B) all flight conditions.
C) flight in turbulent air.

131.	B07	PVT
With certain exceptions, safety belts are required to be secured about passengers during
A) taxi, takeoffs, and landings.
B) all flight conditions.
C) flight in turbulent air.

132.	B12	PVT
The minimum allowable strength of a towline used for an aerotow of a glider having a certificated gross weight of 700 pounds is
A) 560 pounds.
B) 700 pounds.
C) 1,000 pounds.

133.	A29	PVT
A recreational pilot may act as pilot in command of an aircraft that is certificated for a maximum of how many occupants?
A) Four.
B) Three.
C) Two.

134.	B12	PVT
In which class of airspace is acrobatic flight prohibited?
A) Class E airspace not designated for Federal Airways above 1,500 feet AGL.
B) Class E airspace below 1,500 feet AGL.
C) Class G airspace above 1,500 feet AGL.

135.	A16	PVT
Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance?
A) Repair of landing gear brace struts.
B) Replenishing hydraulic fluid.
C) Repair of portions of skin sheets by making additional seams.

136.	B13	PVT
What aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction?
A) Annual and 100-hour inspections.
B) Biannual and 100-hour inspections.
C) Annual and 50-hour inspections.

137.	B13	PVT
An aircraft had a 100-hour inspection when the tachometer read 1259.6. When is the next 100-hour inspection due?
A) 1349.6 hours.
B) 1359.6 hours.
C) 1369.6 hours.

138.	B08	PVT
No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight
A) over a densely populated area.
B) in Class D airspace under special VFR.
C) except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft.

139.	A15	PVT
Who may perform preventive maintenance on an aircraft and approve it for return to service.?
A) Student or Recreational pilot.
B) Private or Commercial pilot.
C) None of the above.

140.	B12	PVT
No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight when the flight visibility is less than
A) 3 miles.
B) 5 miles.
C) 7 miles.

141.	B12	PVT
A chair-type parachute must have been packed by a certificated and appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding
A) 60 days.
B) 90 days.
C) 120 days.

142.	A15	PVT
What regulation allows a private pilot to perform preventive maintenance?
A) 14 CFR Part 91.403.
B) 14 CFR Part 61.113.
C) 14 CFR Part 43.7.

143.	A20	PVT
To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, a pilot must show by logbook endorsement the satisfactory completion of a flight review or completion of a pilot proficiency check within the preceding
A) 6 calendar months.
B) 12 calendar months.
C) 24 calendar months.

144.	B12	PVT
An approved chair-type parachute may be carried in an aircraft for emergency use if it has been packed by an appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding
A) 120 days.
B) 180 days.
C) 365 days.

145.	A20	PVT
Before a person holding a private pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, that person must have
A) passed a flight test in that airplane from an FAA inspector.
B) an endorsement in that person's logbook that he or she is competent to act as pilot in command.
C) received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses that person's logbook.

146.	A20	PVT
What is the definition of a high-performance airplane?
A) An airplane with 180 horsepower, or retractable landing gear, flaps, and a fixed-pitch propeller.
B) An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower.
C) An airplane with a normal cruise speed in excess of 200 knots.

147.	A20	PVT
The pilot in command is required to hold a type rating in which aircraft?
A) Aircraft operated under an authorization issued by the Administrator.
B) Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds.
C) Aircraft involved in ferry flights, training flights, or test flights.

148.	B13	PVT
No person may use an ATC transponder unless it has been tested and inspected within at least the preceding
A) 6 calendar months.
B) 12 calendar months.
C) 24 calendar months.

149.	B12	PVT
When using a towline having a breaking strength more than twice the maximum certificated operating weight of the glider, an approved safety link must be installed at what point(s)?
A) Only the point where the towline is attached to the glider.
B) The point where the towline is attached to the glider and the point of attachment of the towline to the towplane.
C) Only the point where the towline is attached to the towplane.

150.	A20	PVT
A Third-Class Medical Certificate is issued to a 36-year-old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on
A) August 10, 2 years later.
B) August 31, 3 years later.
C) August 31, 2 years later.

151.	A20	PVT
Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of the Administrator, the National Transportation Safety Board, or any
A) authorized representative of the Department of Transportation.
B) person in a position of authority.
C) federal, state, or local law enforcement officer.

152.	B13	PVT
How long does the Airworthiness Certificate of an aircraft remain valid?
A) As long as the aircraft has a current Registration Certificate.
B) Indefinitely, unless the aircraft suffers major damage.
C) As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal Aviation Regulations.

153.	B08	PVT
Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air traffic?
A) A balloon.
B) An aircraft in distress.
C) An aircraft on final approach to land.

154.	A20	PVT
What document(s) must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot in command of an aircraft?
A) Certificates showing accomplishment of a checkout in the aircraft and a current biennial flight review.
B) A pilot certificate with an endorsement showing accomplishment of an annual flight review and a pilot logbook showing recency of experience.
C) An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required.

155.	B12	PVT
The minimum allowable strength of a towline used for an aerotow of a glider having a certificated gross weight of 1,040 pounds is
A) 502 pounds.
B) 832 pounds.
C) 1,040 pounds.

156.	B07	PVT
Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include
A) the designation of an alternate airport.
B) a study of arrival procedures at airports/ heliports of intended use.
C) an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.

157.	I57	PVT
What is indicated when a current CONVECTIVE SIGMET forecasts thunderstorms?
A) Moderate thunderstorms covering 30 percent of the area.
B) Moderate or severe turbulence.
C) Thunderstorms obscured by massive cloud layers.

158.	I57	PVT
To obtain a continuous transcribed weather briefing, including winds aloft and route forecasts for a cross-country flight, a pilot should monitor a
A) Transcribed Weather Broadcast (TWEB) on an NDB or a VOR facility.
B) VHF radio receiver tuned to an Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) frequency.
C) regularly scheduled weather broadcast on a VOR frequency.

159.	I60	PVT
(Refer to figure 19, area D.) What is the direction and speed of movement of the cell?
A) North at 17 knots.
B) North at 17 MPH.
C) South at 17 knots.

160.	I57	PVT
(Refer to figure 16.) What sky condition and type obstructions to vision are forecast for upper Michigan in the western portions from 0200Z until 0500Z?
A) Ceiling becoming 1,000 feet overcast with visibility 3 to 5 statute miles in mist.
B) Ceiling becoming 1,000 feet overcast with visibility 3 to 5 nautical miles in mist.
C) Ceiling becoming 100 feet overcast with visibility 3 to 5 statue miles in mist.

161.	I57	PVT
(Refer to figure 16.) The Chicago FA forecast section is valid until the twenty-fifth at
A) 0800Z.
B) 1400Z.
C) 1945Z.

162.	I57	PVT
(Refer to figure 16.) What sky conditon and visibility are forecast for upper Michigan in the eastern portions after 2300Z?
A) Ceiling 1,000 feet overcast and 3 to 5 statute miles visibility.
B) Ceiling 1,000 feet overcast and 3 to 5 nautical miles visibility.
C) Ceiling 100 feet overcast and 3 to 5 statute miles visibility.

163.	I57	PVT
The section of the Area Forecast entitled 'VFR CLDS/ WX' contains a general description of
A) cloudiness and weather significant to flight operations broken down by states or other geographical areas.
B) forecast sky cover, cloud tops, visibility, and obstructions to vision along specific routes.
C) clouds and weather which cover an area greater than 3,000 square miles and is significant to VFR flight operations.

164.	I60	PVT
(Refer to figure 19, area B.) What is the top for precipitation of the radar return?
A) 24,000 feet AGL.
B) 24,000 feet MSL.
C) 2,400 feet MSL.

165.	I57	PVT
To determine the freezing level and areas of probable icing aloft,the pilot should refer to the
A) Inflight Aviation Weather Advisories.
B) Weather Depiction Chart.
C) Area Forecast.

166.	I62	PVT
In addition to the standard briefing, what additional information should be asked of the weather briefer in order to evaluate soaring conditions?
A) The upper soundings to determine the thermal index at all soaring levels.
B) Dry adiabatic rate of cooling to determine the height of cloud bases.
C) Moist adiabatic rate of cooling to determine the height of cloud tops.

167.	I57	PVT
(Refer to figure 16.) What is the outlook for the southern half of Indiana after 0700Z?
A) Scattered clouds at 3,000 feet AGL.
B) Scattered clouds at 10,000 feet.
C) VFR.

168.	I57	PVT
When the term 'light and variable' is used in reference to a Winds Aloft Forecast, the coded group and windspeed is
A) 0000 and less than 7 knots.
B) 9900 and less than 5 knots.
C) 9999 and less than 10 knots.

169.	I60	PVT
Radar weather reports are of special interest to pilots because they indicate
A) large areas of low ceilings and fog.
B) location of precipitation along with type, intensity, and trend.
C) location of precipitation along with type, intensity, and cell movement of precipitation.

170.	I59	PVT
(Refer to figure 18.) What weather phenomenon is causing IFR conditions in central Oklahoma?
A) Low visibility only.
B) Low ceilings and visibility.
C) Heavy rain showers.

171.	I60	PVT
What information is provided by the Radar Summary Chart that is not shown on other weather charts?
A) Lines and cells of hazardous thunderstorms.
B) Ceilings and precipitation between reporting stations.
C) Types of clouds between reporting stations.

172.	I59	PVT
(Refer to figure 18.) The marginal weather in central Kentucky is due to low
A) ceiling.
B) visibility.
C) ceiling and visibility.

173.	I59	PVT
(Refer to figure 18.) Of what value is the Weather Depiction Chart to the pilot?
A) For determining general weather conditions on which to base flight planning.
B) For a forecast of cloud coverage, visibilities, and frontal activity.
C) For determining frontal trends and air mass characteristics.

174.	H320	PVT
What should pilots state initially when telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information?
A) Tell the number of occupants on board.
B) Identify themselves as pilots.
C) State their total flight time.

175.	I58	PVT
(Refer to figure 18.) The IFR weather in northern Texas is due to
A) intermittent rain.
B) low ceilings.
C) dust devils.

176.	I64	PVT
(Refer to figure 20.) The enclosed shaded area associated with the low pressure system over northern Utah is forecast to have
A) continuous snow.
B) intermittent snow.
C) continuous snow showers.

177.	I58	PVT
(Refer to figure 18.) What is the status of the front that extends from
Nebraska through the upper peninsula of Michigan?
A) Stationary.
B) Warm
C) Cold.

178.	I64	PVT
(Refer to figure 20.) Interpret the weather symbol depicted in Utah on the 12-hour Significant Weather Prognostic Chart.
A) Moderate turbulence, surface to 18,000 feet.
B) Thunderstorm tops at 18,000 feet.
C) Base of clear air turbulence, 18,000 feet.

179.	I57	PVT
What information is contained in a CONVECTIVE SIGMET?
A) Tornadoes, embedded thunderstorms, and hail 3/4 inch or greater in diameter.
B) Severe icing, severe turbulence, or widespread dust storms lowering visibility to less than 3 miles.
C) Surface winds greater than 40 knots or thunderstorms equal to or greater than video integrator processor (VIP) level 4.

180.	I64	PVT
(Refer to figure 20.) How are Significant Weather Prognostic Charts best used by a pilot?
A) For overall planning at all altitudes.
B) For determining areas to avoid (freezing levels and turbulence).
C) For analyzing current frontal activity and cloud coverage.

181.	I57	PVT
What values are used for Winds Aloft Forecasts?
A) Magnetic direction and knots.
B) Magnetic direction and miles per hour.
C) True direction and knots.

182.	I60	PVT
What does the heavy dashed line that forms a large rectangular box on a radar summary chart refer to?
A) Areas of heavy rain.
B) Severe weather watch area.
C) Areas of hail 1/4 inch in diameter.

183.	I64	PVT
(Refer to figure 20.) At what altitude is the freezing level over the middle of Florida on the12-hour Significant Weather Prognostic Chart?
A) 4,000 feet.
B) 8,000 feet.
C) 12,000 feet.

184.	I59	PVT
(Refer to figure 18.) According to the Weather Depiction Chart, the weather for a flight from southern Michigan to north Indiana is ceilings
A) less than 1,000 feet and/or visibility less than 3 miles.
B) greater than 3, 000 feet and visibility greater than 5 miles.
C) 1,000 to 3,000 feet and/or visibility 3 to 5 miles.

185.	I60	PVT
(Refer to figure 19, area E.) The top of the precipitation of the cell is
A) 16,000 feet AGL.
B) 16,000 feet MSL.
C) 25,000 feet MSL.

186.	I57	PVT
(Refer to figure 17.) What wind is forecast for STL at 9,000 feet?
A) 230° true at 32 knots.
B) 230° true at 25 knots.
C) 230° magnetic at 25 knots.

187.	I57	PVT
Which in-flight advisory would contain information on severe icing not associated with thunderstorms?
A) Convective SIGMET.
B) SIGMET.
C) AIRMET.

188.	I57	PVT
SIGMET's are issued as a warning of weather conditions hazardous to which aircraft?
A) Small aircraft only.
B) Large aircraft only.
C) All aircraft.

189.	I64	PVT
(Refer to figure 20.) What weather is forecast for the Florida area just ahead of the stationary front during the first 12 hours?
A) Ceiling 1,000 to 3,000 feet and/or visibility 3 to 5 miles with continuous precipitation.
B) Ceiling 1,000 to 3,000 feet and/or visibility 3 to 5 miles with intermittent percipitation.
C) Ceiling less than 1,000 feet and/or visibility less than 3 miles with continuous precipitation.

190.	I27	PVT
The boundary between two different air masses is referred to as a
A) frontolysis.
B) frontogenesis.
C) front.

191.	I25	PVT
What is the approximate base of the cumulus clouds if the surface air temperature at 1,000 feet MSL is 70 °F and the dewpoint is 48 °F?
A) 4,000 feet MSL.
B) 5,000 feet MSL.
C) 6,000 feet MSL.

192.	I25	PVT
What early morning weather observations indicate the possibility of good weather conditions for balloon flight most of the day?
A) Clear skies and surface winds, 10 knots or less.
B) Low moving, scattered cumulus clouds and surface winds, 5 knots or less.
C) Overcast with stratus clouds and surface winds, 5 knots or less.

193.	I25	PVT
What are characteristics of a moist, unstable air mass?
A) Cumuliform clouds and showery precipitation.
B) Poor visibility and smooth air.
C) Stratiform clouds and showery precipitation.

194.	I25	PVT
What are characteristics of unstable air?
A) Turbulence and good surface visibility.
B) Turbulence and poor surface visibility.
C) Nimbostratus clouds and good surface visibility.

195.	I25	PVT
A stable air mass is most likely to have which characteristic?
A) Showery precipitation.
B) Turbulent air.
C) Smooth air.

196.	I26	PVT
The suffix 'nimbus,' used in naming clouds, means
A) a cloud with extensive vertical development.
B) a rain cloud.
C) a middle cloud containing ice pellets.

197.	I26	PVT
Clouds are divided into four families according to their
A) outward shape.
B) height range.
C) composition.

198.	I26	PVT
An almond or lens-shaped cloud which appears stationary, but which may contain winds of 50 knots or more, is referred to as
A) an inactive frontal cloud.
B) a funnel cloud.
C) a lenticular cloud.

199.	I26	PVT
Crests of standing mountain waves may be marked by stationary, lens-shaped clouds known as
A) mammatocumulus clouds.
B) standing lenticular clouds.
C) roll clouds.

200.	I23	PVT
The wind at 5,000 feet AGL is southwesterly while the surface wind is southerly. This difference in direction is primarily due to
A) stronger pressure gradient at higher altitudes.
B) friction between the wind and the surface.
C) stronger Coriolis force at the surface.

201.	I26	PVT
What cloud types would indicate convective turbulence?
A) Cirrus clouds.
B) Nimbostratus clouds.
C) Towering cumulus clouds.

202.	I25	PVT
Moist, stable air flowing upslope can be expected to
A) produce stratus type clouds.
B) cause showers and thunderstorms.
C) develop convective turbulence.

203.	I27	PVT
One of the most easily recognized discontinuities across a front is
A) a change in temperature.
B) an increase in cloud coverage.
C) an increase in relative humidity.

204.	I27	PVT
One weather phenomenon which will always occur when flying across a front is a change in the
A) wind direction.
B) type of precipitation.
C) stability of the air mass.

205.	I27	PVT
Steady precipitation preceding a front is an indication of
A) stratiform clouds with moderate turbulence.
B) cumuliform clouds with little or no turbulence.
C) stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence.

206.	I28	PVT
Possible mountain wave turbulence could be anticipated when winds of 40 knots or greater blow
A) across a mountain ridge, and the air is stable.
B) down a mountain valley, and the air is unstable.
C) parallel to a mountain peak, and the air is stable.

207.	I28	PVT
Where does wind shear occur?
A) Only at higher altitudes.
B) Only at lower altitudes.
C) At all altitudes, in all directions.

208.	I28	PVT
When may hazardous wind shear be expected?
A) When stable air crosses a mountain barrier where it tends to flow in layers forming lenticular clouds.
B) In areas of low-level temperature inversion, frontal zones, and clear air turbulence.
C) Following frontal passage when stratocumulus clouds form indicating mechanical mixing.

209.	I28	PVT
A pilot can expect a wind-shear zone in a temperature inversion whenever the windspeed at 2,000 to 4,000 feet above the surface is at least
A) 10 knots.
B) 15 knots.
C) 25 knots.

210.	I28	PVT
One in-flight condition necessary for structural icing to form is
A) small temperature/dewpoint spread.
B) stratiform clouds.
C) visible moisture.

211.	I29	PVT
In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest accumulation rate?
A) Cumulus clouds with below freezing temperatures.
B) Freezing drizzle.
C) Freezing rain.

212.	I29	PVT
Why is frost considered hazardous to flight?
A) Frost changes the basic aerodynamic shape of the airfoils, thereby decreasing lift.
B) Frost slows the airflow over the airfoils, thereby increasing control effectiveness.
C) Frost spoils the smooth flow of air over the wings, thereby decreasing lifting capability.

213.	I26	PVT
What clouds have the greatest turbulence?
A) Towering cumulus.
B) Cumulonimbus.
C) Nimbostratus.

214.	I22	PVT
Which factor would tend to increase the density altitude at a given airport?
A) An increase in barometric pressure.
B) An increase in ambient temperature.
C) A decrease in relative humidity.

215.	I21	PVT
Every physical process of weather is accompanied by, or is the result of, a
A) movement of air.
B) pressure differential.
C) heat exchange.

216.	I21	PVT
What causes variations in altimeter settings between weather reporting points?
A) Unequal heating of the Earth's surface.
B) Variation of terrain elevation.
C) Coriolis force.

217.	I21	PVT
A temperature inversion would most likely result in which weather condition?
A) Clouds with extensive vertical development above an inversion aloft.
B) Good visibility in the lower levels of the atmosphere and poor visibility above an inversion aloft.
C) An increase in temperature as altitude is increased.

218.	I21	PVT
The most frequent type of ground or surface-based temperature inversion is that which is produced by
A) terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively still night.
B) warm air being lifted rapidly aloft in the vicinity of mountainous terrain.
C) the movement of colder air under warm air, or the movement of warm air over cold air.

219.	I21	PVT
Which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low-level temperature inversion layer when the relative humidity is high?
A) Smooth air, poor visibility, fog, haze, or low clouds.
B) Light wind shear, poor visibility, haze, and light rain.
C) Turbulent air, poor visibility, fog, low stratus type clouds, and showery precipitation.

220.	I21	PVT
What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level?
A) 15 °C and 29.92 inches Hg.
B) 59 °C and 1013.2 millibars.
C) 59 °F and 29.92 millibars.

221.	I22	PVT
If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.96, what is the approximate change in indication?
A) Altimeter will indicate .15 inches Hg higher.
B) Altimeter will indicate 150 feet higher.
C) Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower.

222.	I22	PVT
Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?
A) When the atmospheric pressure is 29.92 inches Hg.
B) When standard atmospheric conditions exist.
C) When indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude.

223.	I22	PVT
Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?
A) At sea level, when the temperature is 0 °F.
B) When the altimeter has no installation error.
C) At standard temperature.

224.	I22	PVT
If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate
A) the actual altitude above sea level.
B) higher than the actual altitude above sea level.
C) lower than the actual altitude above sea level.

225.	I25	PVT
What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?
A) A stable layer of air.
B) An unstable layer of air.
C) Chinook winds on mountain slopes.

226.	I25	PVT
If an unstable air mass is forced upward, what type clouds can be expected?
A) Stratus clouds with little vertical development.
B) Stratus clouds with considerable associated turbulence.
C) Clouds with considerable vertical development and associated turbulence.

227.	I23	PVT
What condition does a rising barometer indicate for balloon operations?
A) Decreasing clouds and wind.
B) Chances of thunderstorms.
C) Approaching frontal activity.

228.	I24	PVT
What is meant by the term 'dewpoint'?
A) The temperature at which condensation and evaporation are equal.
B) The temperature at which dew will always form.
C) The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated.

229.	I24	PVT
The amount of water vapor which air can hold depends on the
A) dewpoint.
B) air temperature.
C) stability of the air.

230.	I24	PVT
Clouds, fog, or dew will always form when
A) water vapor condenses.
B) water vapor is present.
C) relative humidity reaches 100 percent.

231.	I24	PVT
What are the processes by which moisture is added to unsaturated air?
A) Evaporation and sublimation.
B) Heating and condensation.
C) Supersaturation and evaporation.

232.	I24	PVT
Which conditions result in the formation of frost?
A) The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below freezing when small droplets of moisture fall on the surface.
B) The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below the dewpoint of the adjacent air and the dewpoint is below freezing.
C) The temperature of the surrounding air is at or below freezing when small drops of moisture fall on the collecting surface.

233.	I24	PVT
The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that there
A) are thunderstorms in the area.
B) has been cold frontal passage.
C) is a temperature inversion with freezing rain at a higher altitude.

234.	I25	PVT
What measurement can be used to determine the stability of the atmosphere?
A) Atmospheric pressure.
B) Actual lapse rate.
C) Surface temperature.

235.	I25	PVT
What would decrease the stability of an air mass?
A) Warming from below.
B) Cooling from below.
C) Decrease in water vapor.

236.	I25	PVT
What is a characteristic of stable air?
A) Stratiform clouds.
B) Unlimited visibility.
C) Cumulus clouds.

237.	I30	PVT
Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?
A) The appearance of an anvil top.
B) Precipitation beginning to fall.
C) Maximum growth rate of the clouds.

238.	I22	PVT
Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude?
A) In colder than standard air temperature.
B) In warmer than standard air temperature.
C) When density altitude is higher than indicated altitude.

239.	I56	PVT
(Refer to figure 14.) The intensity of the turbulence reported at a specific altitude is
A) moderate at 5,500 feet and at 7,200 feet.
B) moderate from 5,500 feet to 7,200 feet.
C) light from 5,500 feet to 7,200 feet.

240.	I30	PVT
The conditions necessary for the formation of cumulonimbus clouds are a lifting action and
A) unstable air containing an excess of condensation nuclei.
B) unstable, moist air.
C) either stable or unstable air.

241.	I55	PVT
For aviation purposes, ceiling is defined as the height above the Earth's surface of the
A) lowest reported obscuration and the highest layer of clouds reported as overcast.
B) lowest broken or overcast layer or vertical visibility into an obscuration.
C) lowest layer of clouds reported as scattered, broken, or thin.

242.	I55	PVT
(Refer to figure 12.) The wind direction and velocity at KJFK is from
A) 180° true at 4 knots.
B) 180° magnetic at 4 knots.
C) 040° true at 18 knots.

243.	I55	PVT
(Refer to figure 12.) The remarks section for KMDW has RAB35 listed. This entry means
A) blowing mist has reduced the visibility to 1-1/2 SM.
B) rain began at 1835Z.
C) the barometer has risen .35 inches Hg.

244.	I55	PVT
(Refer to figure 12.) What are the current conditions depicted for Chicago Midway Airport (KMDW)?
A) Sky 700 feet overcast, visibility 1-1/2SM, rain.
B) Sky 7000 feet overcast, visibility 1-1/2SM, heavy rain.
C) Sky 700 feet overcast, visibility 11, occasionally 2SM, with rain.

245.	I55	PVT
(Refer to figure 13.) According to the weather briefing, the most ideal time to launch balloons is
A) as soon as possible after 1300Z.
B) at 1500Z when the ground will be partially shaded.
C) at 2000Z when there is enough wind for cross-country.

246.	I55	PVT
(Refer to figure 13.) According to the weather briefing, good balloon weather will begin to deteriorate
A) soon after 1300Z as the wind starts to increase.
B) about 1500Z when the lower scattered clouds begin to form.
C) at 2000Z due to sharp increase in wind conditions.

247.	I55	PVT
(Refer to figure 13.) What effect do the clouds mentioned in the weather briefing have on soaring conditions?
A) All thermals stop at the base of the clouds.
B) Thermals persist to the tops of the clouds at 25,000 feet.
C) The scattered clouds indicate thermals at least to the tops of the lower clouds.

248.	I55	PVT
(Refer to figure 13.) At what time will thermals begin to form?
A) Between 1300Z and 1500Z while the sky is clear.
B) By 1500Z (midmorning) when scattered clouds begin to form.
C) About 2000Z (early afternoon) when the wind begins to increase.

249.	I56	PVT
(Refer to figure 14.) The base and tops of the overcast layer reported by a pilot are
A) 1,800 feet MSL and 5,500 feet MSL.
B) 5,500 feet AGL and 7,200 feet MSL.
C) 7,200 feet MSL and 8,900 feet MSL.

250.	I54	PVT
When requesting weather information for the following morning, a pilot should request
A) an outlook briefing.
B) a standard briefing.
C) an abbreviated briefing.

251.	I56	PVT
(Refer to figure 14.) If the terrain elevation is 1,295 feet MSL, what is the height above ground level of the base of the ceiling?
A) 505 feet AGL.
B) 1,295 feet AGL.
C) 6,586 feet AGL.

252.	I54	PVT
A weather briefing that is provided when the information requested is 6 or more hours in advance of the proposed departure time is
A) an outlook briefing.
B) a forecast briefing.
C) a prognostic briefing.

253.	I56	PVT
(Refer to figure 14.) The intensity and type of icing reported by a pilot is
A) light to moderate.
B) light to moderate clear.
C) light to moderate rime.

254.	I57	PVT
Which weather reports and forecasts are most important for local area balloon operations?
A) Winds Aloft Forecasts and Radar Summary Charts.
B) Winds Aloft Forecasts and Surface Analysis Charts.
C) Winds Aloft Forecasts and Aviation Routine Weather Reports.

255.	I57	PVT
From which primary source should information be obtained regarding expected weather at the estimated time of arrival if your destination has no Terminal Forecast?
A) Low-Level Prognostic Chart.
B) Weather Depiction Chart.
C) Area Forecast.

256.	I57	PVT
(Refer to figure 15.) What is the valid period for the TAF for KMEM?
A) 1200Z to 1200Z.
B) 1200Z to 1800Z.
C) 1800Z to 1800Z.

257.	I57	PVT
(Refer to figure 15.) In the TAF for KMEM, what does 'SHRA' stand for?
A) Rain showers.
B) A shift in wind direction is expected.
C) A significant change in precipitation is possible.

258.	I57	PVT
(Refer to figure 15.) Between 1000Z and 1200Z the visibility at KMEM is forecast to be?
A) 1/2 statute mile.
B) 3 statute miles.
C) 6 statute miles.

259.	I57	PVT
(Refer to figure 15.) What is the forecast wind for KMEM from 1600Z until the end of the forecast?
A) No significant wind.
B) Variable in direction at 6 knots.
C) Variable in direction at 4 knots.

260.	I57	PVT
(Refer to figure 15.) In the TAF from KOKC, the 'FM (FROM) Group' is forecast for the hours from 1600Z to 2200Z with the wind from
A) 180° at 10 knots.
B) 160° at 10 knots.
C) 180° at 10 knots, becoming 200° at 13 knots.

261.	I57	PVT
(Refer to figure 15.) In the TAF from KOKC, the clear sky becomes
A) overcast at 2,000 feet during the forecast period between 2200Z and 2400Z.
B) overcast at 200 feet with a 40% probability of becoming overcast at 600 feet during the forecast period between 2200Z and 2400Z.
C) overcast at 200 feet with the probability of becoming overcast at 400 feet during the forecast period between 2200Z and 2400Z.

262.	I57	PVT
(Refer to figure 15.) During the time period from 0600Z to 0800Z, what visibility is forecast for KOKC?
A) Greater than 6 statute miles.
B) Possibly 6 statute miles.
C) Not forecasted.

263.	I57	PVT
(Refer to figure 15.) The only cloud type forecast in TAF reports is
A) Nimbostratus.
B) Cumulonimbus.
C) Scattered cumulus.

264.	I56	PVT
(Refer to figure 14.) The wind and temperature at 12,000 feet MSL as reported by a pilot are
A) 090° at 21 MPH and -9 °F.
B) 080° at 21 knots and -7 °C.
C) 090° at 21 knots and -9 °C.

265.	I35	PVT
The development of thermals depends upon
A) a counterclockwise circulation of air.
B) temperature inversions.
C) solar heating.

266.	I57	PVT
To best determine general forecast weather conditions over several states, the pilot should refer to
A) Aviation Area Forecasts.
B) Weather Depiction Charts.
C) Satellite Maps.

267.	I30	PVT
What conditions are necessary for the formation of thunderstorms?
A) High humidity, lifting force, and unstable conditions.
B) High humidity, high temperature, and cumulus clouds.
C) Lifting force, moist air, and extensive cloud cover.

268.	I30	PVT
During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?
A) Cumulus.
B) Dissipating.
C) Mature.

269.	I30	PVT
Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the
A) mature stage.
B) downdraft stage.
C) cumulus stage.

270.	I30	PVT
Thunderstorms which generally produce the most intense hazard to aircraft are
A) squall line thunderstorms.
B) steady-state thunderstorms.
C) warm front thunderstorms.

271.	I30	PVT
A nonfrontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms that often develop ahead of a cold front is a known as a
A) prefrontal system.
B) squall line.
C) dry line.

272.	I30	PVT
If there is thunderstorm activity in the vicinity of an airport at which you plan to land, which hazardous atmospheric phenomenon might be expected on the landing approach?
A) Precipitation static.
B) Wind-shear turbulence.
C) Steady rain.

273.	I30	PVT
Upon encountering severe turbulence, which flight condition should the pilot attempt to maintain?
A) Constant altitude and airspeed.
B) Constant angle of attack.
C) Level flight attitude.

274.	I31	PVT
What situation is most conducive to the formation of radiation fog?
A) Warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights.
B) Moist, tropical air moving over cold, offshore water.
C) The movement of cold air over much warmer water.

275.	I31	PVT
If the temperature/dewpoint spread is small and decreasing, and the temperature is 62 °F, what type weather is most likely to develop?
A) Freezing precipitation.
B) Thunderstorms.
C) Fog or low clouds.

276.	I31	PVT
In which situation is advection fog most likely to form?
A) A warm, moist air mass on the windward side of mountains.
B) An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter.
C) A light breeze blowing colder air out to sea.

277.	I55	PVT
(Refer to figure 12.) Which of the reporting stations have VFR weather?
A) All.
B) KINK, KBOI, and KJFK.
C) KINK, KBOI, and KLAX.

278.	I33	PVT
Low-level turbulence can occur and icing can become hazardous in which type of fog?
A) Rain-induced fog.
B) Upslope fog.
C) Steam fog.

279.	I30	PVT
What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?
A) Roll cloud.
B) Continuous updraft.
C) Frequent lightning.

280.	I35	PVT
Which is considered to be the most hazardous condition when soaring in the vicinity of thunderstorms?
A) Static electricity.
B) Lightning.
C) Wind shear and turbulence.

281.	I35	PVT
Convective circulation patterns associated with sea breezes are caused by
A) warm, dense air moving inland from over the water.
B) water absorbing and radiating heat faster than the land.
C) cool, dense air moving inland from over the water.

282.	I35	PVT
During which period is a sea breeze front most suitable for soaring flight?
A) Shortly after sunrise.
B) During the early forenoon.
C) During the afternoon.

283.	I36	PVT
Which weather phenomenon is always associated with a thunderstorm?
A) Lightning.
B) Heavy rain.
C) Hail.

284.	I54	PVT
Individual forecasts for specific routes of flight can be obtained from which weather source?
A) Transcribed Weather Broadcasts (TWEB's).
B) Terminal Forecasts.
C) Area Forecasts.

285.	I54	PVT
Transcribed Weather Broadcasts (TWEB's) may be monitored by tuning the appropriate radio receiver to certain
A) airport advisory frequencies.
B) VOR and NDB frequencies.
C) ATIS frequencies.

286.	I54	PVT
When telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information, pilots should state
A) the aircraft identification or the pilot's name.
B) true airspeed.
C) fuel on board.

287.	I54	PVT
To get a complete weather briefing for the planned flight, the pilot should request
A) a general briefing.
B) an abbreviated briefing.
C) a standard briefing.

288.	I54	PVT
Which type weather briefing should a pilot request, when departing within the hour, if no preliminary weather information has been received?
A) Outlook briefing.
B) Abbreviated briefing.
C) Standard briefing.

289.	I54	PVT
Which type of weather briefing should a pilot request to supplement mass disseminated data?
A) An outlook briefing.
B) A supplemental briefing.
C) An abbreviated briefing.

290.	I31	PVT
What types of fog depend upon wind in order to exist?
A) Radiation fog and ice fog.
B) Steam fog and ground fog.
C) Advection fog and upslope fog.

291.	I35	PVT
What is an important precaution when soaring in a dust devil?
A) Avoid the eye of the vortex.
B) Avoid the clear area at the outside edge of the dust.
C) Maintain the same direction as the rotation of the vortex.

292.	I57	PVT
AIRMET's are advisories of significant weather phenomena but of lower intensities than Sigmets and are intended for dissemination to
A) only IFR pilots.
B) only VFR pilots.
C) All pilots

293.	I35	PVT
Where and under what condition can enough lift be found for soaring when the weather is generally stable?
A) On the upwind side of hills or ridges with moderate winds present.
B) In mountain waves that form on the upwind side of the mountains.
C) Over isolated peaks when strong winds are present.

294.	I35	PVT
Where may the most favorable type thermals for cross-country soaring be found?
A) Just ahead of a warm front.
B) Along thermal streets.
C) Under mountain waves.

295.	I35	PVT
How can a pilot locate bubble thermals?
A) Look for wet areas where recent showers have occurred.
B) Look for birds that are soaring in areas of intermittent heating.
C) Fly the area just above the boundary of a temperature inversion.

296.	J25	PVT
What service should a pilot normally expect from an En Route Flight Advisory Service (EFAS) station?
A) Actual weather information and thunderstorm activity along the route.
B) Preferential routing and radar vectoring to circumnavigate severe weather.
C) Severe weather information, changes to flight plans, and receipt of routine position reports.

297.	I35	PVT
What is the best visual indication of a thermal?
A) Fragmented cumulus clouds with concave bases.
B) Smooth cumulus clouds with concave bases.
C) Scattered to broken sky with cumulus clouds.

298.	I35	PVT
What is a recommended procedure for entering a dust devil for soaring?
A) Enter above 500 feet and circle the edge in the same direction as the rotation.
B) Enter below 500 feet and circle the edge opposite the direction of rotation.
C) Enter at or above 500 feet and circle the edge opposite the direction of rotation.

299.	I35	PVT
What is one recommended method for locating thermals?
A) Fly an ever increasing circular path.
B) Maintain a straight track downwind.
C) Look for converging streamers of dust or smoke.

300.	I35	PVT
On which side of a rocky knoll, that is surrounded by vegetation, should a pilot find the best thermals?
A) On the side facing the Sun.
B) On the downwind side.
C) Exactly over the center.

301.	I35	PVT
What minimum upward current must a glider encounter to maintain altitude?
A) At least 2 feet per second.
B) The same as the glider's sink rate.
C) The same as the adjacent down currents.

302.	N23	PVT
(Refer to figure 21.) Over which area should a glider pilot expect to find the best lift under normal conditions?
A) 5.
B) 6.
C) 7.

303.	J25	PVT
Below FL180, en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on
A) 122.0 MHz.
B) 122.1 MHz.
C) 123.6 MHz.

304.	N21	PVT
(Refer to figure 54.) What is the CG of the glider if the pilot and passenger each weigh 215 pounds?
A) 74.69 inches aft of datum - out of limits forward.
B) 81.08 inches aft of datum - within limits.
C) 81.08 inches aft of datum - over maximum gross weight.

305.	H316	PVT
(Refer to figures 33 and 34.) What is the maximum amount of baggage that can be carried when the airplane is loaded as follows?
Front seat occupants	387 lb
Rear seat occupants	293 lb
Fuel	35 gal
A) 45 pounds.
B) 63 pounds.
C) 220 pounds.

306.	H316	PVT
GIVEN:
	WEIGHT	ARM	MOMENT
	(LB)	(IN)	(LB-IN)
Empty weight	1,495.0	101.4	151,593.0
Pilot and passengers	380.0	64.0
Fuel (30 gal usable no reserve)	96.0
The CG is located how far aft of datum?
A) CG 92.44.
B) CG 94.01.
C) CG 119.8.

307.	H316	PVT
An aircraft is loaded 110 pounds over maximum certificated gross weight. If fuel (gasoline) is drained to bring the aircraft weight within limits, how much fuel should be drained?
A) 15.7 gallons.
B) 16.2 gallons.
C) 18.4 gallons.

308.	H316	PVT
(Refer to figures 33 and 34.) Determine if the airplane weight and balance is within limits.
Front seat occupants	415 lb
Rear seat occupants	110 lb
Fuel, main tanks	44 gal
Fuel, aux. tanks	19 gal
Baggage	32 lb
A) 19 pounds overweight, CG within limits.
B) 19 pounds overweight, CG out of limits forward.
C) Weight within limits, CG out of limits.

309.	O220	PVT
What constitutes the payload of a balloon?
A) Total gross weight.
B) Total weight of passengers, cargo, and fuel.
C) Weight of the aircraft and equipment.

310.	O220	PVT
(Refer to figure 58.) What is the maximum weight allowed for pilot and passengers for a flight at 5,000 feet with a standard temperature? Launch with 20 gallons of propane.
A) 670 pounds.
B) 760 pounds.
C) 1,095 pounds.

311.	O220	PVT
(Refer to figure 58.) Determine the maximum weight allowable for pilot and passenger for a flight at approximately 1,000 feet with a temperature of 68 °F. Launch with 20 gallons of propane.
A) 580 pounds.
B) 620 pounds.
C) 720 pounds.

312.	O220	PVT
(Refer to figure 58.) Determine the maximum payload for a balloon flying at 2,500 feet at an ambient temperature of 91 °F.
A) 420 pounds.
B) 465 pounds.
C) 505 pounds.

313.	H316	PVT
Which items are included in the empty weight of an aircraft?
A) Unusable fuel and undrainable oil.
B) Only the airframe, powerplant, and optional equipment.
C) Full fuel tanks and engine oil to capacity.

314.	N21	PVT
A pilot plans to fly solo in the front seat of a two-place glider which displays the following placards on the instrument panel:
MINIMUM PILOT WEIGHT: 135 LB
MAXIMUM PILOT WEIGHT: 220 LB
NOTE: Seat ballast should be used as necessary.
The recommended towing speed for all tows is 55 - 65 knots. What action should be taken if the pilot's weight is 125 pounds?
A) Add 10 pounds of seat ballast to the rear seat.
B) Add 10 pounds of seat ballast.
C) Add 45 pounds of seat ballast to obtain the average pilot weight of 170 pounds.

315.	H719	PVT
(Refer to figures 45 and 46.) Approximately how much baggage, if any, may be carried in the gyroplane, without exceeding weight and balance limits?
	WEIGHT	MOMENT
	(LB)	(1000)
Empty weight	1,074	85.6
Oil, 6 qt	---	1.0
Fuel, Full	---	---
Pilot (FWD)	224	---
A) None, overweight.
B) 70 pounds.
C) 100 pounds.

316.	N21	PVT
A pilot plans to fly solo in the front seat of a two-place glider which displays the following placards on the instrument panel:
MINIMUM PILOT WEIGHT: 135 LB
MAXIMUM PILOT WEIGHT: 220 LB
NOTE: Seat ballast should be used as necessary.
The recommended towing speed for all tows is 55 - 65 knots. What action should be taken if the pilot's weight is 115 pounds?
A) Add 20 pounds of seat ballast to the rear seat.
B) Add 55 pounds of seat ballast to obtain the average pilot weight of 170 pounds.
C) Add 20 pounds of seat ballast.

317.	H316	PVT
(Refer to figure 35.) What is the maximum amount of baggage that may be loaded aboard the airplane for the CG to remain within the moment envelope?
	WEIGHT (LB)	MOM/1000
Empty weight	1,350	51.5
Pilot and front passenger	250	---
Rear passengers	400	---
Baggage	---	---
Fuel, 30 gal	---	---
Oil, 8 qt	---	-0.2
A) 105 pounds.
B) 110 pounds.
C) 120 pounds.

318.	H316	PVT
(Refer to figures 33 and 34.) Which action can adjust the airplane's weight to maximum gross weight and the CG within limits for takeoff?
Front seat occupants	425 lb
Rear seat occupants	300 lb
Fuel, main tanks	44 gal
A) Drain 12 gallons of fuel.
B) Drain 9 gallons of fuel.
C) Transfer 12 gallons of fuel from the main tanks to the auxiliary tanks.

319.	H316	PVT
(Refer to figure 35.) Determine the moment with the following data:
	WEIGHT (LB)	MOM/1000
Empty weight	1,350	51.5
Pilot and front passenger	340	---
Fuel (std tanks)	Capacity	---
Oil, 8 qt	---	---
A) 69.9 pound-inches.
B) 74.9 pound-inches.
C) 77.6 pound-inches.

320.	N21	PVT
(Refer to figure 54.) Calculate the weight and balance of the glider, and determine if the CG is within limits.
Pilot (fwd seat) 160 lb
Passenger (aft seat) 185 lb
A) CG 71.65 inches aft of datum - out of limits forward.
B) CG 79.67 inches aft of datum - within limits.
C) CG 83.43 inches aft of datum - within limits.

321.	H316	PVT
(Refer to figure 35.) Calculate the moment of the airplane and determine which category is applicable.
	WEIGHT (LB)	MOM/1000
Empty weight	1,350	51.5
Pilot and front passenger	310	---
Rear passengers	96	---
Fuel, 38 gal	---	---
Oil, 8 qt	---	-0.2
A) 79.2, utility category.
B) 80.8, utility category.
C) 81.2, normal category.

322.	H316	PVT
(Refer to figure 35.) Determine the aircraft loaded moment and the aircraft category.
	WEIGHT (LB)	MOM/1000
Empty weight	1,350	51.5
Pilot and front passenger	380	---
Fuel, 48 gal	288	---
Oil, 8 qt	---	---
A) 78.2, normal category.
B) 79.2, normal category.
C) 80.4, utility category.

323.	N21	PVT
(Refer to figure 54.) How is the CG affected if radio and oxygen equipment weighing 35 pounds is added at station 43.8? The glider weighs 945 pounds with a moment of 78,000.2 pound-inches prior to adding the equipment.
A) CG shifts forward 0.79 inch - out of limits forward.
B) CG shifts forward 1.38 inches - within limits.
C) CG shifts aft 1.38 inches - out of limits aft.

324.	H719	PVT
(Refer to figures 45 and 46.) What is the condition of the weight and balance of the gyroplane as loaded?
	WEIGHT	MOMENT
	(LB)	(1000)
Empty weight	1,074	85.6
Oil, 6 qt	---	1.0
Pilot and passenger	247	---
Fuel, 12 gal	---	---
Baggage	95	---
A) Within limits.
B) Overweight.
C) Out of limits aft.

325.	H316	PVT
(Refer to figure 35.) What is the maximum amount of fuel that may be aboard the airplane on takeoff if loaded as follows?
	WEIGHT (LB)	MOM/1000
Empty weight	1,350	51.5
Pilot and front passenger	340	---
Rear passengers	310	---
Baggage	45	---
Oil, 8 qt	---	---
A) 24 gallons.
B) 32 gallons.
C) 40 gallons.

326.	H316	PVT
(Refer to figures 33 and 34.) Upon landing, the front passenger (180 pounds) departs the airplane. A rear passenger (204 pounds) moves to the front passenger position. What effect does this have on the CG if the airplane weighed 2,690 pounds and the MOM/100 was 2,260 just prior to the passenger transfer?
A) The CG moves forward approximately 3 inches.
B) The weight changes, but the CG is not affected.
C) The CG moves forward approximately 0.1 inch.

327.	H315	PVT
An airplane has been loaded in such a manner that the CG is located aft of the aft CG limit. One undesirable flight characteristic a pilot might experience with this airplane would be
A) a longer takeoff run.
B) difficulty in recovering from a stalled condition.
C) stalling at higher-than-normal airspeed.

328.	H315	PVT
Loading an airplane to the most aft CG will cause the airplane to be
A) less stable at all speeds.
B) less stable at slow speeds, but more stable at high speeds.
C) less stable at high speeds, but more stable at low speeds.

329.	J34	PVT
(Refer to figure 53.) Which type radar service is provided to VFR aircraft at Lincoln Municipal?
A) Sequencing to the primary Class C airport and standard separation.
B) Sequencing to the primary Class C airport and conflict resolution so that radar targets do not touch, or 1,000 feet vertical separation.
C) Sequencing to the primary Class C airport, traffic advisories, conflict resolution, and safety alerts.

330.	J28	PVT
(Refer to figure 27, area 3.) When flying over Arrowwood National Wildlife Refuge, a pilot should fly no lower than
A) 2,000 feet AGL.
B) 2,500 feet AGL.
C) 3,000 feet AGL.

331.	J33	PVT
An ATC clearance provides
A) priority over all other traffic.
B) adequate separation from all traffic.
C) authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace.

332.	J11	PVT
An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot during a local flight:
'TRAFFIC 2 O'CLOCK, 5 MILES, NORTHBOUND...'
Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
A) Between directly ahead and 90° to the left.
B) Between directly behind and 90° to the right.
C) Between directly ahead and 90° to the right.

333.	J11	PVT
An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 090°:
'TRAFFIC 3 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, WESTBOUND...'
Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
A) East.
B) South.
C) West.

334.	J11	PVT
An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 360°:
'TRAFFIC 10 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND...'
Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
A) Northwest.
B) Northeast.
C) Southwest.

335.	J14	PVT
What procedure is recommended when climbing or descending VFR on an airway?
A) Execute gentle banks, left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace.
B) Advise the nearest FSS of the altitude changes.
C) Fly away from the centerline of the airway before changing altitude.

336.	J09	PVT
Responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert area rests with
A) the controlling agency.
B) all pilots.
C) Air Traffic Control.

337.	J10	PVT
Prior to entering an Airport Advisory Area, a pilot should
A) monitor ATIS for weather and traffic advisories.
B) contact approach control for vectors to the traffic pattern.
C) contact the local FSS for airport and traffic advisories.

338.	J11	PVT
From whom should a departing VFR aircraft request radar traffic information during ground operations?
A) Clearance delivery.
B) Tower, just before takeoff.
C) Ground control, on initial contact.

339.	J09	PVT
What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)?
A) Obtain a clearance from the controlling agency prior to entering the MOA.
B) Operate only on the airways that transverse the MOA.
C) Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted.

340.	J09	PVT
A balloon flight through a restricted area is
A) permitted at certain times, but only with prior permission by the appropriate authority.
B) permitted anytime, but caution should be exercised because of high-speed military aircraft.
C) never permitted.

341.	J09	PVT
Under what condition, if any, may pilots fly through a restricted area?
A) When flying on airways with an ATC clearance.
B) With the controlling agency's authorization.
C) Regulations do not allow this.

342.	J11	PVT
TRSA Service in the terminal radar program provides
A) IFR separation (1,000 feet vertical and 3 miles lateral) between all aircraft.
B) warning to pilots when their aircraft are in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, or other aircraft.
C) sequencing and separation for participating VFR aircraft.

343.	J11	PVT
Which initial action should a pilot take prior to entering Class C airspace?
A) Contact approach control on the appropriate frequency.
B) Contact the tower and request permission to enter.
C) Contact the FSS for traffic advisories.

344.	J11	PVT
When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes?
A) 0700, 1700, 7000.
B) 1200, 1500, 7000.
C) 7500, 7600, 7700.

345.	J11	PVT
When operating under VFR below 18,000 feet MSL, unless otherwise authorized, what transponder code should be selected?
A) 1200.
B) 7600.
C) 7700.

346.	J11	PVT
Unless otherwise authorized, if flying a transponder equipped aircraft, a recreational pilot should squawk which VFR code?
A) 1200.
B) 7600.
C) 7700.

347.	J11	PVT
If Air Traffic Control advises that radar service is terminated when the pilot is departing Class C airspace, the transponder should be set to code
A) 0000.
B) 1200.
C) 4096.

348.	J10	PVT
(Refer to figure 22, area 3.) What type military flight operations should a pilot expect along IR 644?
A) IFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 250 knots.
B) VFR training flights above 1,500 feet AGL at speeds less than 250 knots.
C) Instrument training flights below 1,500 feet AGL at speeds in excess of 150 knots.

349.	J08	PVT
Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within Class C airspace?
A) The pilot must file a flight plan prior to departure.
B) The pilot must monitor ATC until clear of the Class C airspace.
C) The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.

350.	J08	PVT
All operations within Class C airspace must be in
A) accordance with instrument flight rules.
B) compliance with ATC clearances and instructions.
C) an aircraft equipped with a 4096-code transponder with Mode C encoding capability.

351.	J11	PVT
An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying north in a calm wind:
'TRAFFIC 9 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND...'
Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
A) South.
B) North.
C) West.

352.	J08	PVT
The normal radius of the outer area of Class C airspace is
A) 5 nautical miles.
B) 15 nautical miles.
C) 20 nautical miles.

353.	J08	PVT
The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport is normally
A) 1,200 feet AGL.
B) 3,000 feet AGL.
C) 4,000 feet AGL.

354.	J08	PVT
(Refer to figure 26, area 4.) The floor of Class B airspace overlying Hicks Airport (T67) north-northwest of Fort Worth Meacham Field is
A) at the surface.
B) 3,200 feet MSL.
C) 4,000 feet MSL.

355.	J10	PVT
A non-tower satellite airport, within the same Class D airspace as that designated for the primary airport, requires radio communications be established and maintained with the
A) satellite airport's UNICOM.
B) associated Flight Service Station.
C) primary airport's control tower.

356.	J09	PVT
(Refer to figure 27, area 2.) What hazards to aircraft may exist in areas such as Devils Lake East MOA?
A) Unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles.
B) Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers.
C) High volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity.

357.	J08	PVT
(Refer to figure 26, area 2.) The floor of Class B airspace at Addison Airport is
A) at the surface.
B) 3,000 feet MSL.
C) 3,100 feet MSL.

358.	J09	PVT
(Refer to figure 21 area 4.) What hazards to aircraft may exist in restricted areas such as R-5302B?
A) Unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles.
B) Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers.
C) High volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity.

359.	J10	PVT
The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on
A) the number of airports that lie within the Class D airspace.
B) 5 statute miles from the geographical center of the primary airport.
C) the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established.

360.	J11	PVT
Select the UNICOM frequencies normally assigned to stations at landing areas used exclusively as heliports.
A) 122.75 and 123.65 MHz.
B) 123.0 and 122.95 MHz.
C) 123.05 and 123.075 MHz.

361.	J22	PVT
When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on
A) 118.0 and 118.8 MHz.
B) 121.5 and 243.0 MHz.
C) 123.0 and 119.0 MHz.

362.	J22	PVT
When must the battery in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced (or recharged if the battery is rechargeable)?
A) After one-half the battery's useful life.
B) During each annual and 100-hour inspection.
C) Every 24 calendar months.

363.	J22	PVT
When may an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be tested?
A) Anytime.
B) At 15 and 45 minutes past the hour.
C) During the first 5 minutes after the hour.

364.	H309	PVT
What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine?
A) Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges.
B) Place the magneto or ignition switch momentarily in the OFF position to check for proper grounding.
C) Test each brake and the parking brake.

365.	H567	PVT
During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?
A) The other aircraft is crossing to the left.
B) The other aircraft is crossing to the right.
C) The other aircraft is approaching head-on.

366.	H307	PVT
What is one procedure to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating?
A) Enrichen the fuel mixture.
B) Increase the RPM.
C) Reduce the airspeed.

367.	H309	PVT
Should it become necessary to handprop an airplane engine, it is extremely important that a competent pilot
A) call 'contact' before touching the propeller.
B) be at the controls in the cockpit.
C) be in the cockpit and call out all commands.

368.	J22	PVT
Which procedure is recommended to ensure that the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) has not been activated?
A) Turn off the aircraft ELT after landing.
B) Ask the airport tower if they are receiving an ELT signal.
C) Monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown.

369.	H567	PVT
During a night flight, you observe steady red and green lights ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?
A) The other aircraft is crossing to the left.
B) The other aircraft is flying away from you.
C) The other aircraft is approaching head-on.

370.	H308	PVT
A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller is to
A) avoid high RPM settings with high manifold pressure.
B) avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM.
C) always use a rich mixture with high RPM settings.

371.	H308	PVT
How is engine operation controlled on an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller?
A) The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates engine RPM.
B) The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates a constant blade angle.
C) The throttle controls engine RPM as registered on the tachometer and the mixture control regulates the power output.

372.	H307	PVT
What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating during a climb?
A) Reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed.
B) Reduce climb speed and increase RPM.
C) Increase climb speed and increase RPM.

373.	H705	PVT
If RPM is low and manifold pressure is high, what initial corrective action should be taken?
A) Increase the throttle.
B) Lower the collective pitch.
C) Raise the collective pitch.

374.	H308	PVT
What is an advantage of a constant-speed propeller?
A) Permits the pilot to select and maintain a desired cruising speed.
B) Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance.
C) Provides a smoother operation with stable RPM and eliminates vibrations.

375.	H307	PVT
If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, the pilot may have been operating with
A) the mixture set too rich.
B) higher-than-normal oil pressure.
C) too much power and with the mixture set too lean.

376.	H307	PVT
Excessively high engine temperatures will
A) cause damage to heat-conducting hoses and warping of the cylinder cooling fins.
B) cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.
C) not appreciably affect an aircraft engine.

377.	H305	PVT
One of the main functions of flaps during approach and landing is to
A) decrease the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.
B) permit a touchdown at a higher indicated airspeed.
C) increase the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.

378.	H307	PVT
If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely cause
A) a mixture of fuel and air that is not uniform in all cylinders.
B) lower cylinder head temperatures.
C) detonation.

379.	H307	PVT
One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for
A) improved engine performance.
B) uniform heat distribution.
C) balanced cylinder head pressure.

380.	H313	PVT
(Refer to figure 6.) To receive accurate indications during flight from a heading indicator, the instrument must be
A) set prior to flight on a known heading.
B) calibrated on a compass rose at regular intervals.
C) periodically realigned with the magnetic compass as the gyro precesses.

381.	H314	PVT
In the Northern Hemisphere, if a glider is accelerated or decelerated, the magnetic compass will normally indicate
A) a turn toward north while decelerating on an east heading.
B) correctly only when on a north or south heading.
C) a turn toward south while accelerating on a west heading.

382.	H314	PVT
In the Northern Hemisphere, if an aircraft is accelerated or decelerated, the magnetic compass will normally indicate
A) a turn momentarily.
B) correctly when on a north or south heading.
C) a turn toward the south.

383.	H307	PVT
The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting
A) an increase in RPM and then a gradual decrease in RPM.
B) a decrease in RPM and then a constant RPM indication.
C) a decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM.

384.	H307	PVT
On aircraft equipped with fuel pumps, when is the auxiliary electric driven pump used?
A) All the time to aid the engine-driven fuel pump.
B) In the event engine-driven fuel pump fails.
C) Constantly except in starting the engine.

385.	H314	PVT
In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the west if
A) a left turn is entered from a north heading.
B) a right turn is entered from a north heading.
C) an aircraft is accelerated while on a north heading.

386.	H314	PVT
Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused by the
A) presence of flaws in the permanent magnets of the compass.
B) difference in the location between true north and magnetic north.
C) magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines of magnetic force.

387.	H312	PVT
(Refer to figure 4.) What is the caution range of the airplane?
A) 0 to 60 MPH.
B) 100 to 165 MPH.
C) 165 to 208 MPH.

388.	H313	PVT
(Refer to figure 7.) The proper adjustment to make on the attitude indicator during level flight is to align the
A) horizon bar to the level-flight indication.
B) horizon bar to the miniature airplane.
C) miniature airplane to the horizon bar.

389.	H313	PVT
(Refer to figure 5.) A turn coordinator provides an indication of the
A) movement of the aircraft about the yaw and roll axis.
B) angle of bank up to but not exceeding 30°.
C) attitude of the aircraft with reference to the longitudinal axis.

390.	H312	PVT
What is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on airspeed indicators?
A) Never-exceed speed.
B) Maximum structural cruising speed.
C) Maneuvering speed.

391.	H312	PVT
(Refer to figure 4.) What is the maximum structural cruising speed?
A) 100 MPH.
B) 165 MPH.
C) 208 MPH.

392.	H312	PVT
(Refer to figure 4.) Which color identifies the power-off stalling speed with wing flaps and landing gear in the landing configuration?
A) Upper limit of the green arc.
B) Upper limit of the white arc.
C) Lower limit of the white arc.

393.	H312	PVT
(Refer to figure 4.) Which color identifies the normal flap operating range?
A) The lower limit of the white arc to the upper limit of the green arc.
B) The green arc.
C) The white arc.

394.	H312	PVT
(Refer to figure 4.) What is the maximum flaps-extended speed?
A) 65 MPH.
B) 100 MPH.
C) 165 MPH.

395.	H312	PVT
(Refer to figure 4.) Which color identifies the power-off stalling speed in a specified configuration?
A) Upper limit of the green arc.
B) Upper limit of the white arc.
C) Lower limit of the green arc.

396.	H312	PVT
(Refer to figure 4.) Which color identifies the never-exceed speed?
A) Lower limit of the yellow arc.
B) Upper limit of the white arc.
C) The red radial line.

397.	H312	PVT
(Refer to figure 4.) The maximum speed at which the airplane can be operated in smooth air is
A) 100 MPH.
B) 165 MPH.
C) 208 MPH.

398.	H313	PVT
(Refer to figure 7.) How should a pilot determine the direction of bank from an attitude indicator such as the one illustrated?
A) By the direction of deflection of the banking scale (A).
B) By the direction of deflection of the horizon bar (B).
C) By the relationship of the miniature airplane (C) to the deflected horizon bar (B).

399.	H314	PVT
During flight, when are the indications of a magnetic compass accurate?
A) Only in straight-and-level unaccelerated flight.
B) As long as the airspeed is constant.
C) During turns if the bank does not exceed 18°.

400.	H312	PVT
If the pitot tube and outside static vents become clogged, which instruments would be affected?
A) The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and turn-and-slip indicator.
B) The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.
C) The altimeter, attitude indicator, and turn-and-slip indicator.

401.	H308	PVT
What effect does high density altitude, as compared to low density altitude, have on propeller efficiency and why?
A) Efficiency is increased due to less friction on the propeller blades.
B) Efficiency is reduced because the propeller exerts less force at high density altitudes than at low density altitudes.
C) Efficiency is reduced due to the increased force of the propeller in the thinner air.

402.	H312	PVT
How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter?
A) Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude.
B) Higher temperatures expand the pressure levels and the indicated altitude is higher than true altitude.
C) Lower temperatures lower the pressure levels and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude.

403.	H312	PVT
Altimeter setting is the value to which the barometric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates
A) calibrated altitude at field elevation.
B) absolute altitude at field elevation.
C) true altitude at field elevation.

404.	H312	PVT
(Refer to figure 3.) Altimeter 1 indicates
A) 500 feet.
B) 1,500 feet.
C) 10,500 feet.

405.	H307	PVT
Filling the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered a good operating procedure because this will
A) force any existing water to the top of the tank away from the fuel lines to the engine.
B) prevent expansion of the fuel by eliminating airspace in the tanks.
C) prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks.

406.	H312	PVT
What is true altitude?
A) The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level.
B) The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface.
C) The height above the standard datum plane.

407.	H307	PVT
With regard to carburetor ice, float-type carburetor systems in comparison to fuel injection systems are generally considered to be
A) more susceptible to icing.
B) equally susceptible to icing.
C) susceptible to icing only when visible moisture is present.

408.	H307	PVT
An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by
A) the oil level being too low.
B) operating with a too high viscosity oil.
C) operating with an excessively rich mixture.

409.	H307	PVT
For internal cooling, reciprocating aircraft engines are especially dependent on
A) a properly functioning thermostat.
B) air flowing over the exhaust manifold.
C) the circulation of lubricating oil.

410.	H307	PVT
Which condition is most favorable to the development of carburetor icing?
A) Any temperature below freezing and a relative humidity of less than 50 percent.
B) Temperature between 32 and 50 °F and low humidity.
C) Temperature between 20 and 70 °F and high humidity.

411.	H314	PVT
In the Northern Hemisphere, the magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the south when
A) a left turn is entered from an east heading.
B) a right turn is entered from a west heading.
C) the aircraft is decelerated while on a west heading.

412.	H307	PVT
Generally speaking, the use of carburetor heat tends to
A) decrease engine performance.
B) increase engine performance.
C) have no effect on engine performance.

413.	H307	PVT
If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller and a float-type carburetor, the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be
A) a drop in oil temperature and cylinder head temperature.
B) engine roughness.
C) loss of RPM.

414.	H307	PVT
Applying carburetor heat will
A) result in more air going through the carburetor.
B) enrich the fuel/air mixture.
C) not affect the fuel/air mixture.

415.	H312	PVT
The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instrument?
A) Altimeter.
B) Vertical-speed indicator.
C) Airspeed indicator.

416.	H312	PVT
What does the red line on an airspeed indicator represent?
A) Maneuvering speed.
B) Turbulent or rough-air speed.
C) Never-exceed speed.

417.	H307	PVT
Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when
A) the spark plugs are fouled or shorted out or the wiring is defective.
B) hot spots in the combustion chamber ignite the fuel/air mixture in advance of normal ignition.
C) the unburned charge in the cylinders explodes instead of burning normally.

418.	H312	PVT
As altitude increases, the indicated airspeed at which a given airplane stalls in a particular configuration will
A) decrease as the true airspeed decreases.
B) decrease as the true airspeed increases.
C) remain the same regardless of altitude.

419.	H307	PVT
During the run-up at a high-elevation airport, a pilot notes a slight engine roughness that is not affected by the magneto check but grows worse during the carburetor heat check. Under these circumstances, what would be the most logical initial action?
A) Check the results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture.
B) Taxi back to the flight line for a maintenance check.
C) Reduce manifold pressure to control detonation.

420.	H307	PVT
The operating principle of float-type carburetors is based on the
A) automatic metering of air at the venturi as the aircraft gains altitude.
B) difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet.
C) increase in air velocity in the throat of a venturi causing an increase in air pressure.

421.	H307	PVT
The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to
A) decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in order to compensate for increased air density.
B) decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density.
C) increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decrease in pressure and density of the air.

422.	H312	PVT
What is absolute altitude?
A) The altitude read directly from the altimeter.
B) The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface.
C) The height above the standard datum plane.

423.	H307	PVT
If a pilot suspects that the engine (with a fixed-pitch propeller) is detonating during climb-out after takeoff, the initial corrective action to take would be to
A) lean the mixture.
B) lower the nose slightly to increase airspeed.
C) apply carburetor heat.

424.	H312	PVT
If it is necessary to set the altimeter from 29.15 to 29.85, what change occurs?
A) 70-foot increase in indicated altitude.
B) 70-foot increase in density altitude.
C) 700-foot increase in indicated altitude.

425.	H307	PVT
The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as
A) combustion.
B) pre-ignition.
C) detonation.

426.	H312	PVT
Under what condition is indicated altitude the same as true altitude?
A) If the altimeter has no mechanical error.
B) When at sea level under standard conditions.
C) When at 18,000 feet MSL with the altimeter set at 29.92.

427.	H307	PVT
Which would most likely cause the cylinder head temperature and engine oil temperature gauges to exceed their normal operating ranges?
A) Using fuel that has a lower-than-specified fuel rating.
B) Using fuel that has a higher-than-specified fuel rating.
C) Operating with higher-than-normal oil pressure.

428.	H312	PVT
What is pressure altitude?
A) The indicated altitude corrected for position and installation error.
B) The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92.
C) The indicated altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure.

429.	H312	PVT
(Refer to figure 4.) What is the full flap operating range for the airplane?
A) 60 to 100 MPH.
B) 60 to 208 MPH.
C) 65 to 165 MPH.

430.	H307	PVT
What type fuel can be substituted for an aircraft if the recommended octane is not available?
A) The next higher octane aviation gas.
B) The next lower octane aviation gas.
C) Unleaded automotive gas of the same octane rating.

431.	H312	PVT
What is density altitude?
A) The height above the standard datum plane.
B) The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.
C) The altitude read directly from the altimeter.

432.	H307	PVT
While cruising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What will occur if a descent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture?
A) The fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean.
B) There will be more fuel in the cylinders than is needed for normal combustion, and the excess fuel will absorb heat and cool the engine.
C) The excessively rich mixture will create higher cylinder head temperatures and may cause detonation.

433.	H749	PVT
Ground resonance is most likely to develop when
A) on the ground and harmonic vibrations develop between the main and tail rotors.
B) a series of shocks causes the rotor system to become unbalanced.
C) there is a combination of a decrease in the angle of attack on the advancing blade and an increase in the angle of attack on the retreating blade.

434.	N32	PVT
A pilot unintentionally enters a steep diving spiral to the left. What is the proper way to recover from this attitude without overstressing the glider?
A) Apply up-elevator pressure to raise the nose.
B) Apply more up-elevator pressure and then use right aileron pressure to control the overbanking tendency.
C) Relax the back pressure and shallow the bank; then apply up-elevator pressure until the nose has been raised to the desired position.

435.	N30	PVT
The sailplane has become airborne and the towplane loses power before leaving the ground. The sailplane should release immediately,
A) and maneuver to the right of the towplane.
B) extend the spoilers, and land straight ahead.
C) and maneuver to the left of the towplane.

436.	H582	PVT
The most important rule to remember in the event of a power failure after becoming airborne is to
A) immediately establish the proper gliding attitude and airspeed.
B) quickly check the fuel supply for possible fuel exhaustion.
C) determine the wind direction to plan for the forced landing.

437.	H745	PVT
If the pilot were to make a near-vertical power approach into a confined area with the airspeed near zero, what hazardous condition may develop?
A) Ground resonance when ground contact is made.
B) A settling-with-power condition.
C) Blade stall vibration could develop.

438.	H767	PVT
If the pilot experiences ground resonance during rotor spin-up, what action should the pilot take?
A) Taxi to a smooth area.
B) Close the throttle and slowly raise the spin-up lever.
C) Make a normal takeoff immediately.

439.	H745	PVT
Select the helicopter component that, if defective, would cause medium-frequency vibrations.
A) Tail rotor.
B) Main rotor.
C) Engine.

440.	H745	PVT
While in level cruising flight in a helicopter, a pilot experiences low-frequency vibrations (100 to 400 cycles per minute). These vibrations are normally associated with the
A) engine.
B) cooling fan.
C) main rotor.

441.	J13	PVT
(Refer to figure 51.) The segmented circle indicates that a landing on Runway 26 will be with a
A) right-quartering headwind.
B) left-quartering headwind.
C) right-quartering tailwind.

442.	J14	PVT
What ATC facility should the pilot contact to receive a special VFR departure clearance in Class D airspace?
A) Automated Flight Service Station.
B) Air Traffic Control Tower.
C) Air Route Traffic Control Center.

443.	J13	PVT
If instructed by ground control to taxi to Runway 9, the pilot may proceed
A) via taxiways and across runways to, but not onto, Runway 9.
B) to the next intersecting runway where further clearance is required.
C) via taxiways and across runways to Runway 9, where an immediate takeoff may be made.

444.	J13	PVT
After landing at a tower-controlled airport, when should the pilot contact ground control?
A) When advised by the tower to do so.
B) Prior to turning off the runway.
C) After reaching a taxiway that leads directly to the parking area.

445.	J13	PVT
(Refer to figure 51.) Which runway and traffic pattern should be used as indicated by the wind cone in the segmented circle?
A) Right-hand traffic on Runway 9.
B) Right-hand traffic on Runway 18.
C) Left-hand traffic on Runway 36.

446.	J03	PVT
(Refer to figure 48.) Illustration A indicates that the aircraft is
A) below the glide slope.
B) on the glide slope.
C) above the glide slope.

447.	J13	PVT
(Refer to figure 51.) The traffic patterns indicated in the segmented circle have been arranged to avoid flights over an area to the
A) south of the airport.
B) north of the airport.
C) southeast of the airport.

448.	J13	PVT
(Refer to figure 51.) The segmented circle indicates that the airport traffic is
A) left-hand for Runway 36 and right-hand for Runway 18.
B) left-hand for Runway 18 and right-hand for Runway 36.
C) right-hand for Runway 9 and left-hand for Runway 27.

449.	J03	PVT
An above glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is
A) a white light signal.
B) a green light signal.
C) an amber light signal.

450.	J13	PVT
(Refer to figure 50.) If the wind is as shown by the landing direction indicator, the pilot should land on
A) Runway 18 and expect a crosswind from the right.
B) Runway 22 directly into the wind.
C) Runway 36 and expect a crosswind from the right.

451.	J13	PVT
(Refer to figure 50.) Select the proper traffic pattern and runway for landing.
A) Left-hand traffic and Runway 18.
B) Right-hand traffic and Runway 18.
C) Left-hand traffic and Runway 22.

452.	J03	PVT
A slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is
A) four white lights.
B) three white lights and one red light.
C) two white lights and two red lights.

453.	J03	PVT
A lighted heliport may be identified by a
A) green, yellow, and white rotating beacon.
B) flashing yellow light.
C) blue lighted square landing area.

454.	J05	PVT
The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately
A) 009° and 027° true.
B) 090° and 270° true.
C) 090° and 270° magnetic.

455.	J05	PVT
(Refer to figure 50.) The arrows that appear on the end of the north/south runway indicate that the area
A) may be used only for taxiing.
B) is usable for taxiing, takeoff, and landing.
C) cannot be used for landing, but may be used for taxiing and takeoff.

456.	J05	PVT
(Refer to figure 49.) Area C on the airport depicted is classified as a
A) stabilized area.
B) multiple heliport.
C) closed runway.

457.	J05	PVT
(Refer to figure 49.) What is the difference between area A and area E on the airport depicted?
A) 'A' may be used for taxi and takeoff; 'E' may be used only as an overrun.
B) 'A' may be used for all operations except heavy aircraft landings; 'E' may be used only as an overrun.
C) 'A' may be used only for taxiing; 'E' may be used for all operations except landings.

458.	J05	PVT
(Refer to figure 49.) According to the airport diagram, which statement is true?
A) Runway 30 is equipped at position E with emergency arresting gear to provide a means of stopping military aircraft.
B) Takeoffs may be started at position A on Runway 12, and the landing portion of this runway begins at position B.
C) The takeoff and landing portion of Runway 12 begins at position B.

459.	J05	PVT
(Refer to figure 49.) That portion of the runway identified by the letter A may be used for
A) landing.
B) taxiing and takeoff.
C) taxiing and landing.

460.	J03	PVT
A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a
A) pulsating white light.
B) steady white light.
C) pulsating red light.

461.	J03	PVT
A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon that emits
A) white and green alternating flashes.
B) two quick, white flashes between green flashes.
C) green, yellow, and white flashes.

462.	J03	PVT
An on glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is
A) a white light signal.
B) a green light signal.
C) an amber light signal.

463.	J03	PVT
An airport's rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates
A) there are obstructions on the airport.
B) that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums.
C) the Air Traffic Control tower is not in operation.

464.	J03	PVT
To set the high intensity runway lights on medium intensity, the pilot should click the microphone seven times, then click it
A) one time.
B) three times.
C) five times.

465.	J03	PVT
(Refer to figure 48.) While on final approach to a runway equipped with a standard 2-bar VASI, the lights appear as shown by illustration D. This means that the aircraft is
A) above the glide slope.
B) below the glide slope.
C) on the glide slope.

466.	J03	PVT
(Refer to figure 48.) VASI lights as shown by illustration C indicate that the airplane is
A) off course to the left.
B) above the glide slope.
C) below the glide slope.

467.	J34	PVT
(Refer to figure 23, area 2 and legend 1.) For information about the parachute jumping and glider operations at Silverwood Airport, refer to
A) notes on the border of the chart.
B) the Airport/Facility Directory.
C) the Notices to Airmen (NOTAM) publication.

468.	H568	PVT
Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by
A) white directional lights.
B) blue omnidirectional lights.
C) alternate red and green lights.

469.

J03