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06/09/2003
Bank: (Private Pilot)
Airman Knowledge Test Question Bank

The FAA computer-assisted testing system is supported by a series of supplement publications. These publications, available through several aviation publishers, include the graphics, legends, and maps that are needed to successfully respond to certain test items. Please download the file Supplements.pdf at the Internet address of http://afs600.faa.gov/ for a complete list of the associated supplement books.


 

1. J27 PVT      
When departing behind a heavy aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by maneuvering the aircraft
A) below and downwind from the heavy aircraft.
B) above and upwind from the heavy aircraft.
C) below and upwind from the heavy aircraft.


 

2. H507 PVT      
Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should
A) check altitude, airspeed, and heading indications.
B) visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance.
C) announce their intentions on the nearest CTAF.


 

3. J27 PVT      
When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying
A) above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft's touchdown point.
B) below the large aircraft's final approach path and landing before the large aircraft's touchdown point.
C) above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing before the large aircraft's touchdown point.


 

4. J27 PVT      
Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to
A) sink below the aircraft generating turbulence.
B) rise into the traffic pattern.
C) rise into the takeoff or landing path of a crossing runway.


 

5. J27 PVT      
Wingtip vortices are created only when an aircraft is
A) operating at high airspeeds.
B) heavily loaded.
C) developing lift.


 

6. J27 PVT      
The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is
A) light, dirty, and fast.
B) heavy, dirty, and fast.
C) heavy, clean, and slow.


 

7. J27 PVT      
The wind condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding wake turbulence on landing is a
A) light, quartering headwind.
B) light, quartering tailwind.
C) strong headwind.


 

8. J27 PVT      
When taking off or landing at an airport where heavy aircraft are operating, one should be particularly alert to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to
A) rise from a crossing runway into the takeoff or landing path.
B) rise into the traffic pattern area surrounding the airport.
C) sink into the flightpath of aircraft operating below the aircraft generating the turbulence.


 

9. M52 PVT      
FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Air Traffic Control and General Operations are issued under which subject number?
A) 60.
B) 70.
C) 90.


 

10. H564 PVT      
What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight?
A) Look only at far away, dim lights.
B) Scan slowly to permit offcenter viewing.
C) Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds.


 

11. M52 PVT      
FAA advisory circulars (some free, others at cost) are available to all pilots and are obtained by
A) distribution from the nearest FAA district office.
B) ordering those desired from the Government Printing Office.
C) subscribing to the Federal Register.


 

12. B08 PVT      
When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is
A) 200 knots.
B) 230 knots.
C) 250 knots.


 

13. B09 PVT      
Which cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight on a magnetic course of 135°?
A) Even thousandths.
B) Even thousandths plus 500 feet.
C) Odd thousandths plus 500 feet.


 

14. B08 PVT      
If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter?
A) The elevation of the nearest airport corrected to mean sea level.
B) The elevation of the departure area.
C) Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.


 

15. B08 PVT      
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?
A) An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.
B) An altitude of 500 feet above the surface and no closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
C) An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet.


 

16. G13 PVT      
The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an accident report within how many days?
A) 5.
B) 7.
C) 10.


 

17. G12 PVT      
May aircraft wreckage be moved prior to the time the NTSB takes custody?
A) Yes, but only if moved by a federal, state, or local law enforcement officer.
B) Yes, but only to protect the wreckage from further damage.
C) No, it may not be moved under any circumstances.


 

18. G11 PVT      
Which incident requires an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?
A) A forced landing due to engine failure.
B) Landing gear damage, due to a hard landing.
C) Flight control system malfunction or failure.


 

19. B08 PVT      
When would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which caused the pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance?
A) When requested by ATC.
B) Immediately.
C) Within 7 days.


 

20. A15 PVT      
Preventive maintenance has been performed on an aircraft. What paperwork is required?
A) A full, detailed description of the work done must be entered in the airframe logbook.
B) The date the work was completed, and the name of the person who did the work must be entered in the airframe and engine logbook.
C) The signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records.


 

21. G11 PVT      
If an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage to the aircraft, the nearest NTSB field office should be notified
A) immediately.
B) within 48 hours.
C) within 7 days.


 

22. B08 PVT      
When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance, unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance. The one exception to this regulation is
A) when the clearance states 'at pilot's discretion.'
B) an emergency.
C) if the clearance contains a restriction.


 

23. B08 PVT      
When flying in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is
A) 180 knots.
B) 200 knots.
C) 250 knots.


 

24. A02 PVT      
Which would provide the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance during climb after takeoff?
A) VY.
B) VA.
C) VX.


 

25. A02 PVT      
After takeoff, which airspeed would the pilot use to gain the most altitude in a given period of time?
A) VY.
B) VX.
C) VA.


 

26. A13 PVT      
What should an owner or operator know about Airworthiness Directives (AD's)?
A) They are mandatory.
B) They are voluntary.
C) For Informational purposes only.


 

27. B11 PVT      
Except in Alaska, during what time period should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft?
A) End of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight.
B) 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.
C) Sunset to sunrise.


 

28. B11 PVT      
When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, supplemental oxygen shall be used during
A) the entire flight time at those altitudes.
B) that flight time in excess of 10 minutes at those altitudes.
C) that flight time in excess of 30 minutes at those altitudes.


 

29. A13 PVT      
May a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an Airworthiness Directive (AD)?
A) Yes, AD's are only voluntary.
B) Yes, if allowed by the AD.
C) Yes, under VFR conditions only.


 

30. B11 PVT      
An operable 4096-code transponder with an encoding altimeter is required in which airspace?
A) Class A, Class B (and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport), and Class C.
B) Class D and Class E (below 10,000 feet MSL).
C) Class D and Class G (below 10,000 feet MSL).


 

31. B13 PVT      
Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 1993. The next inspection will be due no later than
A) September 30, 1994.
B) September 1, 1995.
C) September 30, 1995.


 

32. B08 PVT      
Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?
A) Glider.
B) Airship.
C) Aircraft refueling other aircraft.


 

33. B08 PVT      
What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on?
A) The faster aircraft shall give way.
B) The aircraft on the left shall give way.
C) Each aircraft shall give way to the right.


 

34. B13 PVT      
Which records or documents shall the owner or operator of an aircraft keep to show compliance with an applicable Airworthiness Directive?
A) Aircraft maintenance records.
B) Airworthiness Certificate and Pilot's Operating Handbook.
C) Airworthiness and Registration Certificates.


 

35. A01 PVT      
With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft?
A) Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon.
B) Normal, utility, acrobatic, limited.
C) Transport, restricted, provisional.


 

36. B08 PVT      
Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL?
A) 200 knots.
B) 250 knots.
C) 288 knots.


 

37. B08 PVT      
A seaplane and a motorboat are on crossing courses. If the motorboat is to the left of the seaplane, which has the right-of-way?
A) The motorboat.
B) The seaplane.
C) Both should alter course to the right.


 

38. A01 PVT      
With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a category of aircraft?
A) Gyroplane, helicopter, airship, free balloon.
B) Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.
C) Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea.


 

39. B11 PVT      
When are non-rechargeable batteries of an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) required to be replaced?
A) Every 24 months.
B) When 50 percent of their useful life expires.
C) At the time of each 100-hour or annual inspection.


 

40. A01 PVT      
With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft?
A) Normal, utility, acrobatic.
B) Airplane, rotorcraft, glider.
C) Landplane, seaplane.


 

41. B08 PVT      
What action, if any, is appropriate if the pilot deviates from an ATC instruction during an emergency and is given priority?
A) Take no special action since you are pilot in command.
B) File a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility, if requested.
C) File a report to the FAA Administrator, as soon as possible.


 

42. A01 PVT      
The definition of nighttime is
A) sunset to sunrise.
B) 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.
C) the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.


 

43. B11 PVT      
In addition to a valid Airworthiness Certificate, what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight?
A) Aircraft engine and airframe logbooks, and owner's manual.
B) Radio operator's permit, and repair and alteration forms.
C) Operating limitations and Registration Certificate.


 

44. A02 PVT      
Which V-speed represents maneuvering speed?
A) VA.
B) VLO.
C) VNE.


 

45. B11 PVT      
When must batteries in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced or recharged, if rechargeable?
A) After any inadvertent activation of the ELT.
B) When the ELT has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour.
C) When the ELT can no longer be heard over the airplane's communication radio receiver.


 

46. A01 PVT      
With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a class of aircraft?
A) Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.
B) Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea.
C) Lighter-than-air, airship, hot air balloon, gas balloon.


 

47. B09 PVT      
What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL?
A) 1 mile.
B) 3 miles.
C) 4 miles.


 

48. B08 PVT      
Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only
A) when the weather minimums are below basic VFR.
B) when the associated control tower is in operation.
C) when the associated Flight Service Station is in operation.


 

49. B08 PVT      
A blue segmented circle on a Sectional Chart depicts which class airspace?
A) Class B.
B) Class C.
C) Class D.


 

50. B09 PVT      
Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for a recreational pilot flying VFR above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is
A) 1 mile.
B) 3 miles.
C) 5 miles.


 

51. B08 PVT      
Each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall
A) maintain a 3° glide to the runway.
B) maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.
C) stay high until the runway can be reached in a power-off landing.


 

52. B09 PVT      
What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?
A) 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.
B) 1 mile visibility, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal clearance from clouds.
C) 3 miles visibility and clear of clouds.


 

53. B09 PVT      
The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL is
A) remain clear of clouds.
B) 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally.
C) 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally.


 

54. B09 PVT      
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is
A) 1 mile.
B) 3 miles.
C) 5 miles.


 

55. B09 PVT      
During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is
A) 1,000 feet.
B) 1,500 feet.
C) 2,000 feet.


 

56. B08 PVT      
What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?
A) Two-way radio communications equipment and a 4096-code transponder.
B) Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and DME.
C) Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.


 

57. B08 PVT      
In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited?
A) Class A.
B) Class B.
C) Class C.


 

58. B08 PVT      
An operable 4096-code transponder and Mode C encoding altimeter are required in
A) Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport.
B) Class D airspace.
C) Class E airspace below 10,000 feet MSL.


 

59. B13 PVT      
If an alteration or repair substantially affects an aircraft's operation in flight, that aircraft must be test flown by an appropriately-rated pilot and approved for return to service prior to being operated
A) by any private pilot.
B) with passengers aboard.
C) for compensation or hire.


 

60. B09 PVT      
What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane?
A) Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions.
B) Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
C) Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.


 

61. B08 PVT      
Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for landings or takeoffs
A) at all tower controlled airports regardless of weather conditions.
B) at all tower controlled airports only when weather conditions are less than VFR.
C) at all tower controlled airports within Class D airspace only when weather conditions are less than VFR.


 

62. B08 PVT      
What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?
A) Recreational Pilot Certificate.
B) Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements.
C) Private Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.


 

63. B09 PVT      
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is
A) 500 feet.
B) 1,000 feet.
C) 1,500 feet.


 

64. B09 PVT      
No person may begin a flight in a rotorcraft under VFR unless there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed, to fly thereafter for at least
A) 20 minutes.
B) 30 minutes.
C) 1 hour.


 

65. B09 PVT      
What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for a recreational pilot in Class G airspace at 1,200 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?
A) 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.
B) 3 miles visibility and clear of clouds.
C) 3 miles visibility, 500 feet below the clouds.


 

66. B07 PVT      
Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?
A) A certificated aircraft mechanic.
B) The pilot in command.
C) The owner or operator.


 

67. B08 PVT      
Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace?
A) Class C.
B) Class E.
C) Class G.


 

68. B08 PVT      
Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a noncontrolled airport?
A) Depart in any direction consistent with safety, after crossing the airport boundary.
B) Make all turns to the left.
C) Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport.


 

69. B08 PVT      
Which is appropriate for a helicopter approaching an airport for landing?
A) Remain below the airplane traffic pattern altitude.
B) Avoid the flow of fixed-wing traffic.
C) Fly right-hand traffic.


 

70. B09 PVT      
What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane?
A) Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions.
B) Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
C) Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.


 

71. B09 PVT      
Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for VFR flight above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is
A) 1 mile.
B) 3 miles.
C) 5 miles.


 

72. B09 PVT      
Under what conditions, if any, may a private pilot operate a helicopter under special VFR at night within Class D airspace?
A) The helicopter must be fully instrument equipped and the pilot must be instrument rated.
B) The flight visibility must be at least 1 mile.
C) There are no conditions; regulations permit this.


 

73. B09 PVT      
What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at night?
A) The airplane must be under radar surveillance at all times while in Class D airspace.
B) The airplane must be equipped for IFR with an altitude reporting transponder.
C) The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped.


 

74. B09 PVT      
The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is
A) 1 mile.
B) 3 miles.
C) 5 miles.


 

75. B08 PVT      
A steady green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot
A) is cleared to land.
B) should give way to other aircraft and continue circling.
C) should return for landing.


 

76. B09 PVT      
A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace when the visibility is
A) less than 1 mile and the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet.
B) at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.
C) at least 3 miles and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.


 

77. B09 PVT      
No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the
A) flight visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile.
B) ground visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile.
C) ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles.


 

78. A29 PVT      
When, if ever, may a recreational pilot act as pilot in command in an aircraft towing a banner?
A) If the pilot has logged 100 hours of flight time in powered aircraft.
B) If the pilot has an endorsement in his/her pilot logbook from an authorized flight instructor.
C) It is not allowed.


 

79. B12 PVT      
Which is normally prohibited when operating a restricted category civil aircraft?
A) Flight under instrument flight rules.
B) Flight over a densely populated area.
C) Flight within Class D airspace.


 

80. A29 PVT      
With respect to daylight hours, what is the earliest time a recreational pilot may take off?
A) One hour before sunrise.
B) At sunrise.
C) At the beginning of morning civil twilight.


 

81. A29 PVT      
When may a recreational pilot operate to or from an airport that lies within Class C airspace?
A) Anytime the control tower is in operation.
B) When the ceiling is at least 1,000 feet and the surface visibility is at least 3 miles.
C) For the purpose of obtaining an additional certificate or rating while under the supervision of an authorized flight instructor.


 

82. A29 PVT      
Under what conditions may a recreational pilot operate at an airport that lies within Class D airspace and that has a part-time control tower in operation?
A) Between sunrise and sunset when the tower is in operation, the ceiling is at least 2,500 feet, and the visibility is at least 3 miles.
B) Any time when the tower is in operation, the ceiling is at least 3,000 feet, and the visibility is more than 1 mile.
C) Between sunrise and sunset when the tower is closed, the ceiling is at least 1,000 feet, and the visibility is at least 3 miles.


 

83. A29 PVT      
When may a recreational pilot fly above 10,000 feet MSL?
A) When 2,000 feet AGL or below.
B) When 2,500 feet AGL or below.
C) When outside of controlled airspace.


 

84. A29 PVT      
During daytime, what is the minimum flight or surface visibility required for recreational pilots in Class G airspace below 10,000 feet MSL?
A) 1 mile.
B) 3 miles.
C) 5 miles.


 

85. A29 PVT      
What exception, if any, permits a recreational pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying a passenger for hire?
A) If the passenger pays no more than the operating expenses.
B) If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight.
C) There is no exception.


 

86. A29 PVT      
Under what conditions, if any, may a recreational pilot demonstrate an aircraft in flight to a prospective buyer?
A) The buyer pays all the operating expenses.
B) The flight is not outside the United States.
C) None.


 

87. A29 PVT      
A recreational pilot may act as pilot in command of an aircraft with a maximum engine horsepower of
A) 160.
B) 180.
C) 200.


 

88. A29 PVT      
When must a recreational pilot have a pilot-in-command flight check?
A) Every 400 hours.
B) Every 180 days.
C) If the pilot has less than 400 total flight hours and has not flown as pilot in command in an aircraft within the preceding 180 days.


 

89. A29 PVT      
A recreational pilot may fly as sole occupant of an aircraft at night while under the supervision of a flight instructor provided the flight or surface visibility is at least
A) 3 miles.
B) 4 miles.
C) 5 miles.


 

90. A20 PVT      
Prior to becoming certified as a private pilot with a glider rating, the pilot must have in his or her possession what type of medical?
A) A third-class medical certificate.
B) A statement from a designated medical examiner.
C) A medical certificate is not required.


 

91. B12 PVT      
Unless otherwise specifically authorized, no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate
A) beneath the floor of Class B airspace.
B) over a densely populated area or in a congested airway.
C) from the primary airport within Class D airspace.


 

92. A20 PVT      
Prior to becoming certified as a private pilot with a balloon rating, the pilot must have in his or her possession what class of medical?
A) A third-class medical certificate.
B) A statement from a designated medical examiner.
C) A medical certificate is not required.


 

93. A23 PVT      
What exception, if any, permits a private pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers who pay for the flight?
A) If the passengers pay all the operating expenses.
B) If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight.
C) There is no exception.


 

94. A29 PVT      
During daytime, what is the minimum flight visibility required for recreational pilots in controlled airspace below 10,000 feet MSL?
A) 1 mile.
B) 3 miles.
C) 5 miles.


 

95. A29 PVT      
A recreational pilot acting as pilot in command must have in his or her personal possession while aboard the aircraft
A) a current logbook endorsement to show that a flight review has been satisfactorily accomplished.
B) a current logbook endorsement that permits flight within 50 nautical miles from the departure airport.
C) the pilot logbook to show recent experience requirements to serve as pilot in command have been met.


 

96. A20 PVT      
If recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and official sunset is 1830, the latest time passengers may be carried is
A) 1829.
B) 1859.
C) 1929.


 

97. A20 PVT      
To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in an aircraft of the same category, class, and if a type rating is required, of the same type, within the preceding
A) 90 days.
B) 12 calendar months.
C) 24 calendar months.


 

98. A20 PVT      
If a certificated pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of only
A) 30 days after the date of the move.
B) 60 days after the date of the move.
C) 90 days after the date of the move.


 

99. A29 PVT      
May a recreational pilot act as pilot in command of an aircraft in furtherance of a business?
A) Yes, if the flight is only incidental to that business.
B) Yes, providing the aircraft does not carry a person or property for compensation or hire.
C) No, it is not allowed.


 

100. A21 PVT      
To act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider, a pilot is required to have made within the preceding 12 months
A) at least three flights as observer in a glider being towed by an aircraft.
B) at least three flights in a powered glider.
C) at least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot.


 

101. B13 PVT      
The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that of the
A) pilot in command.
B) owner or operator.
C) mechanic who performs the work.


 

102. A20 PVT      
If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8, this year, when is the next flight review required?
A) August 8, 2 years later.
B) August 31, next year.
C) August 31, 2 years later.


 

103. A20 PVT      
Each recreational or private pilot is required to have
A) a biennial flight review.
B) an annual flight review.
C) a semiannual flight review.


 

104. A20 PVT      
If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8, this year, when is the next flight review required?
A) August 8, next year.
B) August 31, 1 year later.
C) August 31, 2 years later.


 

105. A29 PVT      
How many passengers is a recreational pilot allowed to carry on board?